ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT of collaboration in a health care settings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because interprofessional collaboration and multidisciplinary collaboration are not interchangeable terms. Interprofessional collaboration involves professionals from different disciplines working together to provide comprehensive care, while multidisciplinary collaboration involves professionals from various disciplines working alongside each other but not necessarily working together in a coordinated manner. This distinction is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure effective teamwork and patient-centered care. A: Trust and respect are core values of a collaborative organization - This statement is correct because trust and respect are essential for effective collaboration in healthcare settings. B: A shared vision is essential for collaboration in any health care operations - This statement is correct as a shared vision helps align team members towards common goals. C: Successful conflict resolution can help collaborative teams overcome differences - This statement is correct as resolving conflicts constructively can strengthen team dynamics and improve collaboration.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.
Question 6 of 9
Bel1le has a difficulty tolerating frustration The GOAL Of the nurse is to assist Belle to ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cope with anxiety. The nurse's goal is to address Belle's difficulty tolerating frustration, which likely leads to anxiety. By helping Belle develop coping strategies for managing her anxiety, the nurse can assist her in handling frustration more effectively. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing self-esteem, recognizing needs, and mobilizing resources may be important aspects of Belle's overall care but are not directly related to addressing her difficulty with frustration and anxiety. Focusing on coping with anxiety directly targets the root issue and is the most appropriate goal in this context.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.