ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.
Question 2 of 9
Annie states,'I 'm afraid to 1et my children out of my sight now that I can't hear them." What is the nurse ' s BEST response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A is the correct answer as it demonstrates therapeutic communication by encouraging Annie to express her feelings and fears. It shows empathy and understanding, allowing Annie to elaborate on her concerns. B is incorrect as it dismisses Annie's fears and implies blame on her parenting. C is incorrect as it focuses on the behavior of the children rather than addressing Annie's emotions. D is incorrect as it places the responsibility on the children to make Annie feel comfortable, rather than addressing her concerns directly.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the RATIONALE for instilling eye drops to patients who had eye surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: To help control the intra-ocular pressure Rationale: 1. Eye surgery can lead to increased intra-ocular pressure. 2. Instilling eye drops can help reduce this pressure post-surgery. 3. Controlling intra-ocular pressure is crucial for proper healing and preventing complications. 4. Eye drops for infection (B) or pupil dilation/constriction (C, D) are not primary concerns post-eye surgery.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 5 of 9
What a patient has bleeding after surgery the PACU nurse, expects which color if coming from the arterial source?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bright red and spurts with the heartbeat. This type of bleeding indicates arterial bleeding, which is oxygen-rich blood coming directly from the arteries. Arterial bleeding is bright red in color due to the high oxygen content and spurts with the heartbeat as it is under higher pressure. This rapid spurting is characteristic of arterial bleeding and requires immediate attention to control the bleeding source. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they describe characteristics of venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. Venous bleeding is dark in color, flows slowly, and generally oozes as it is oxygen-depleted blood returning to the heart. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on the specific characteristics of arterial bleeding.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 9 of 9
The physician prescribes decongestant intranasal spray. The nurse instructs the client on the proper use of the spray. Which of the following procedures is the CORRECT method?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tilt the head slightly forward and angle the bottle toward the side of the nostril. This method allows for proper administration of the spray into the nasal passage, ensuring effective delivery of the medication. Tilted head helps direct the spray towards the nasal cavity without causing discomfort or leakage. It also helps prevent the medication from dripping down the back of the throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Finishing instillation in one nostril before moving to the other can lead to uneven distribution of medication and reduced effectiveness. B: Inhaling quickly may cause irritation and discomfort to the mucous membranes due to the forceful intake of the spray. C: Blowing the nose after spraying can expel the medication before it has a chance to be absorbed, decreasing its efficacy.