ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.
Question 2 of 9
An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was accidentally injured in the left leg, but he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with foul odor. Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological testing. The microscopic examination reveals large Gram-positive bacteria, with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro at presence of oxygen. The most likely cause of this disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium perfringens. In this case, the patient's presentation of infected wound with tissue crepitation, foul odor, and Gram-positive bacteria with centrally located spores that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen is indicative of gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens. This anaerobic bacterium produces various toxins that lead to tissue destruction and gas production in the affected area. Clostridium tetani (choice A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, leading to muscle paralysis. Clostridium difficile (choice D) is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea. These choices are incorrect as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the question.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 4 of 9
A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash on the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of renal tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C and S letters. What bacteria were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira. The key features pointing to Leptospira are the presence of convoluted bacteria resembling C and S letters, which is characteristic of Leptospira species. Leptospirosis presents with fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash, and acute renal insufficiency. The other choices (B: Treponema, C: Spirilla, D: Borrelia) do not match the histological description or the clinical presentation of the case. Treponema is associated with syphilis, Spirilla with genus Spirochaeta, and Borrelia with Lyme disease, none of which match the given scenario.
Question 5 of 9
The main structure components of Viruses are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. This genetic material carries instructions for viral replication. Proteins are also essential components of viruses, serving various functions like facilitating viral entry into host cells. Option A is incorrect as lipids are not main components of viruses. Option B is incorrect as lipids are not typically found in the main structure of viruses. Option D is incorrect as lipids are not primary components of viruses, and glycoproteins are not always present in the main structure of viruses.
Question 6 of 9
Which organism is responsible for cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.
Question 7 of 9
For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.
Question 8 of 9
Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.
Question 9 of 9
The binomial system of nomenclature was originally developed by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. He introduced the use of a two-part naming system consisting of a genus name and a species name, known as binomial nomenclature. This system helps in organizing and categorizing living organisms systematically. Pasteur (choice A) is known for his contributions to microbiology, not nomenclature. Martini (choice C) and Jenner (choice D) are not associated with the development of the binomial system of nomenclature.