ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacterium is known for producing a green pigment called pyocyanin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is known for producing pyocyanin, a green pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice A) produces golden-yellow pigments, not green. Escherichia coli (choice C) and Clostridium difficile (choice D) do not produce pyocyanin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the characteristic pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram-positive bacteria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is commonly associated with UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesins that allow it to attach to the bladder wall, causing infection. E. coli is also a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract, making it easily able to migrate to the urinary system. Explanation of incorrect choices: B: Clostridium botulinum - This bacterium causes botulism, a rare foodborne illness, not UTIs. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Often associated with skin infections and abscesses, not UTIs. D: Bacillus cereus - Known for causing food poisoning, not UTIs.
Question 5 of 9
Mesophylic bacteria are with temperature optimum:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (25-37 °C) because mesophilic bacteria thrive best at moderate temperatures typical of most environments, making 25-37 °C their optimum range. This range allows for optimal enzyme activity and growth. Choice B (55-65 °C) is incorrect as it is more suitable for thermophilic bacteria. Choice C (15-18 °C) is too low for mesophiles to thrive efficiently. Choice D (38-45 °C) is too high and is more suitable for thermophiles. Ultimately, the correct answer aligns with the typical temperature range where mesophilic bacteria are most active and abundant.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 7 of 9
Allergies to sea food, eggs, etc are an example of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, allergens trigger the production of IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell and basophil degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This causes immediate allergic symptoms. Seafood and eggs are common allergens that can elicit this response. B: Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies targeting cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. C: Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. D: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is cell-mediated and involves T cells causing inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.
Question 8 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.
Question 9 of 9
For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.