Which of the following individuals would be the most appropriate candidate for immunotherapy?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following individuals would be the most appropriate candidate for immunotherapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Immunotherapy, also known as allergy shots, is a form of treatment that can help reduce symptoms for individuals with severe allergies to substances such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. This treatment involves exposing the patient to small, increasing doses of the allergen over time to help the immune system gradually build up a tolerance. Patients with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen would most likely benefit from immunotherapy as it can help reduce their allergy symptoms and improve their quality of life. On the other hand, individuals with anaphylactic reactions to insect stings (Choice A), allergies to eggs and dairy (Choice B), or a positive tuberculin skin test (Choice C) are not typically candidates for immunotherapy as their conditions are not related to the type of allergies that are commonly treated with this method.

Question 2 of 9

Which disease process improves during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis shows marked improvement during pregnancy, although the reason for this is not entirely clear. The improvement is often significant, leading to relief from symptoms for many pregnant individuals with this condition. However, it's important to note that this improvement is temporary, as relapse typically occurs within 36 months postpartum. The exact mechanisms behind this temporary improvement are not fully understood, but hormones and changes in the immune system during pregnancy are believed to play a role in modifying the disease process.

Question 3 of 9

A child has been experiencing recurrent episodes of acute otitis media (AOM). The nurse should anticipate that what intervention is likely to be ordered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Recurrent episodes of acute otitis media (AOM) can cause fluid accumulation in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss and increased risk of further infections. Insertion of a ventilation tube, also known as a tympanostomy tube, is a common intervention for children with recurrent AOM. This procedure involves placing a tiny tube through the eardrum to allow ventilation and drainage of fluid from the middle ear. Ventilation tubes help equalize pressure, prevent fluid buildup, and reduce the frequency of ear infections. It can improve hearing and decrease the likelihood of future episodes of AOM. Ossiculoplasty, insertion of a cochlear implant, and stapedectomy are not indicated for recurrent AOM.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breath and the nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with advanced cancer, such as breast cancer with metastasis. SVCS is caused by the obstruction or compression of the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body back to the heart. When the superior vena cava is obstructed or compressed, it can lead to symptoms such as difficulty breathing (dyspnea) and distended jugular veins.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with AIDS-related wasting syndrome and AIDS- related anorexia. What drug has been found to promote significant weight gain in AIDS patients by increasing body fat stores?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Megestrol is a synthetic progestational agent that has been found to promote significant weight gain in AIDS patients with wasting syndrome by increasing body fat stores. It is commonly used to stimulate appetite and increase caloric intake in patients experiencing anorexia and weight loss due to various medical conditions, including AIDS-related wasting. Megestrol works by increasing appetite and improving food intake, leading to weight gain and improved nutritional status in patients with HIV/AIDS. It has been shown to be effective in reversing weight loss and improving quality of life in these patients. Therefore, the drug megestrol is the most appropriate choice for promoting weight gain in AIDS patients with wasting syndrome and anorexia.

Question 6 of 9

Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage in a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa. It is important to avoid any unnecessary manipulation of the cervix to prevent complications. Assessing cervical dilation and effacement should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out to prevent harm to the patient.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A nurse assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma would likely find symptoms such as loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo. Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a noncancerous tumor that develops on the vestibulocochlear nerve, which carries sound and balance signals from the inner ear to the brain. The most common symptoms of an acoustic neuroma include progressive hearing loss, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), and dizziness or imbalance (vertigo). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for the symptoms that the nurse is likely to find in a patient with an acoustic neuroma.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is evaluating a nursing assistive personnel’s(NAP) care for a patient with an indwelling catheter. Which action by the NAP will cause the nurse to intervene?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the bed could allow the bag to be raised above the level of the bladder and urine to flow back into the bladder. The urine in the drainage bag is a medium for bacteria; allowing it to reenter the bladder can cause infection. A key intervention to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections is prevention of urine back flow from the tubing and bag into the bladder. All the other actions are correct procedures and do not require immediate follow-up. The drainage bag should be emptied when it is half full to prevent tension and pulling on the catheter, which could result in trauma to the urethra and increase the risk for urinary tract infections. Urine specimens are traditionally obtained by temporarily kinking the tubing, while securing the catheter tubing to the patient’s thigh prevents catheter dislodgment and tissue injury.

Question 9 of 9

A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Cowper glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, are a pair of small exocrine glands located below the prostate gland, within the posterior aspect of the male urethra. These glands are responsible for producing a clear, viscous fluid that helps lubricate the urethra, neutralize acidic urine remnants, and provide a conducive environment for sperm to survive in the urethra. Inflammation of the Cowper glands can result in conditions such as urethritis or other discomfort related to the male reproductive system.

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