ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
Question 2 of 9
A client is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disorder. When teaching the client and family about autoimmune disorders, the nurse should provide which information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Autoimmune disorders include connective tissue (collagen) disorders. Rationale: Autoimmune disorders involve the immune system mistakenly attacking healthy cells and tissues in the body, which can lead to various conditions, including connective tissue disorders like rheumatoid arthritis. Providing this information to the client and family is crucial for understanding the nature of autoimmune disorders and the potential impact on the body. Summary of other choices: A: False-negative or false-positive serologic tests can occur in autoimmune disorders, so this statement is not specific enough to be the most appropriate information to provide. B: Advanced medical interventions can manage symptoms but not cure autoimmune disorders, making this statement inaccurate and misleading. D: Autoimmune disorders can present with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose, but this statement does not address the specific link between autoimmune disorders and connective tissue disorders.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff is the primary sign of breast cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A painless mass in the breast. This is the primary sign of breast cancer because most breast cancers present as painless lumps or masses. This is due to the abnormal growth of cells forming a tumor. Other choices (A, B, C) are also signs of breast cancer, but they are not as common or primary as the presence of a painless mass. A bloody discharge from the nipple (A) can be a sign of a benign condition or cancer, but it is not the most common presentation. Nipple retraction (B) and dimpling of the skin over the lesion (C) can also be signs of breast cancer, but they usually occur in later stages of the disease. Therefore, the presence of a painless mass in the breast is the primary sign that should raise suspicion for breast cancer.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting the assessment by examining a specific aspect (surgical dressing with drainage) and will likely proceed to gather more detailed information based on the initial findings. This approach involves moving from a broad overview to specific details, which is essential in assessing postoperative patients for complications. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive assessment framework that covers various aspects of an individual's health, not specifically focusing on the progression from general to specific assessments in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity levels and exercise routines, which is not the primary focus of the scenario described. D: Problem-oriented assessment is a method that involves identifying and addressing specific health issues or concerns, which is not the primary aim of the assessment approach used by the nurse in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.
Question 6 of 9
When assessing a client with autoimmune disorder, what signs should the nurse look for in the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hives or rashes. In autoimmune disorders, the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, leading to various symptoms. Hives or rashes are common manifestations of autoimmune disorders due to the immune response affecting the skin. Other choices are incorrect because hypotension is not typically associated with autoimmune disorders, localized inflammation may be present but is not specific to autoimmune disorders, and cramping and vomiting are not primary signs of autoimmune disorders.
Question 7 of 9
An adult is on long term aspirin therapy and is experiencing tinnitus. What is the best interpretation of this occurrence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client is experiencing a mild overdosage. Tinnitus is a common symptom of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin overdose can lead to tinnitus due to its ototoxic effects. This occurrence indicates that the client may be taking too much aspirin, resulting in toxicity. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because tinnitus is not a normal side effect of aspirin working correctly, upper GI bleed, or a metallic taste in the mouth.
Question 8 of 9
A client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgery. Surgery is the primary treatment for vaginal cancer, especially for early-stage cases. It involves removing the cancerous tissue from the vagina. Radiation (B) and chemotherapy (C) may also be used in addition to surgery in some cases, but they are not the primary treatment. Immunotherapy (D) is not a standard treatment for vaginal cancer. It is important to prioritize surgery as it directly targets and removes the cancerous cells from the affected area, increasing the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
Question 9 of 9
During the physical examination of a client for a possible neurologic disorder, how can the nurse examine the client for stiffness and rigidity of the neck?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. To examine stiffness and rigidity of the neck, the nurse should move the client's head and chin toward the chest. This maneuver assesses for resistance and limitation in neck flexion, which can indicate stiffness and rigidity commonly seen in neurologic disorders like meningitis or cervical dystonia. A: Positioning the client flat on the bed for hours does not specifically target neck stiffness and rigidity. C: Asking the client to bend and pick up objects assesses motor function, not neck stiffness. D: Introducing a painful stimulus is not a standard or appropriate method for examining neck stiffness and rigidity.