ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
Question 2 of 9
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.
Question 3 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following settings is most therapeutic for an agitated head-injured patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers is the most therapeutic setting for an agitated head-injured patient. Here's the rationale: 1. Consistency: Having one or two consistent caregivers provides the patient with a stable and familiar environment, which can help reduce agitation. 2. Privacy: A semiprivate room offers more privacy compared to a day room or a ward, which can help minimize external stimuli and promote relaxation. 3. Individualized care: In a semiprivate room, caregivers can focus more on the specific needs of the patient, leading to better management of agitation. 4. Reduced distractions: Being in a semiprivate room minimizes distractions and noise, which can be overwhelming for an agitated head-injured patient. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer the same level of consistency, privacy, individualized care, and reduced distractions as a semiprivate room with one
Question 5 of 9
Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose. This intervention is crucial to establish the client's baseline condition before starting morphine therapy. Baseline vital signs provide a comparison for monitoring the client's response to the medication and detecting any adverse effects. This step ensures the nurse can identify and address any potential complications promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins - Naloxone challenge test is used to diagnose opioid dependence, not appropriate for monitoring pain management. B: Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear - Abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be managed gradually. C: Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids - Changing the route of administration should be based on clinical indications, not solely on the client's ability to tolerate fluids.
Question 6 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with renal failure and is admitted for dialysis. Which of the ff is the nurse’s responsibility as the client undergone dialysis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weighing the client before and after the procedure. This is crucial as it helps monitor fluid removal during dialysis, ensuring the process is effective and safe. Weighing helps determine if the correct amount of fluid has been removed. A: Keeping dialysis supplies in a clean area is important for infection control but not a direct responsibility during the procedure. B: Inspecting the catheter insertion site for signs of infection is essential for monitoring the site's health but not a direct responsibility during dialysis. D: Washing hands before and after handling the catheter is a general infection control measure but not specific to the dialysis procedure itself.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following communication methods is not an option for a patient following laryngectomy surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because learning esophageal speech involves creating sound by pushing air from the mouth into the esophagus and then releasing it. Following laryngectomy surgery, the patient's larynx is removed, making it impossible to produce sound in this manner. Placing a finger over the stoma (A) allows the patient to redirect air through the mouth for speech, using a picture board (B) enables communication through written or visual cues, and using a special valve that diverts air into the trachea (C) allows for voice rehabilitation. In summary, options A, B, and C are valid communication methods post-laryngectomy surgery, while option D is not feasible due to the absence of the larynx.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse knows that Parkinson’s disease a progressive neurologic disorder is characterized by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Parkinson's disease is characterized by bradykinesia, tremor, and muscle rigidity. Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement, tremor involves involuntary shaking, and muscle rigidity causes stiffness and resistance to movement. These three symptoms are commonly known as the classic triad of Parkinson's disease. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" (D) is the correct choice as it encompasses all the key features of Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and C individually are incorrect because they do not fully capture the comprehensive presentation of symptoms in Parkinson's disease.
Question 9 of 9
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.