Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus?

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microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B virus. This is because Hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, not an RNA virus. The other choices, A (Hepatitis G virus), C (Hepatitis A virus), and D (Hepatitis E virus) are all RNA viruses. Hepatitis B virus is unique as it contains partially double-stranded DNA. DNA viruses replicate through a DNA intermediate, unlike RNA viruses which directly use RNA. Therefore, Hepatitis B virus stands out as the only DNA virus among the given options.

Question 2 of 9

A subacute toxic effect occurs when the adverse drug effect occurs:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: after repeated exposure for days. Subacute toxic effects typically manifest after a period of time that is longer than immediate (A) or acute (B) effects but shorter than chronic effects (D). This duration of days aligns with the definition of subacute, which refers to effects that occur gradually over a relatively short time frame. It is important to differentiate between the timing of toxic effects to accurately assess the potential harm caused by a substance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the characteristic time frame associated with subacute toxic effects.

Question 3 of 9

There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.

Question 4 of 9

A smear from frothy and purulent vaginal discharges of a 42 y.o. woman was stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method. Its analysis revealed some microorganisms of flagellates class. What microorganism were the most probably revealed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection commonly found in vaginal discharges. In this case, the presence of flagellates in the vaginal discharge aligns with the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis. Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, transmitted by sandflies. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness through the tsetse fly bite. Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the correlation between the flagellates found in the vaginal discharge and the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis.

Question 5 of 9

Urinalysis of a patient with acute cystitis shows leukocytes and a large number of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation has resulted in the growth of mucous colonies that produce a green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most likely cause of the patient's disorder?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis. It typically presents with leukocytes and gram-negative bacilli in the urine. The green pigment production indicates pyocyanin, which is a characteristic of E. coli. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) can also produce green pigment, but it is less common in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis (B) is associated with a swarming motility pattern on agar, not mucous colonies. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is associated with pneumonia and other respiratory infections, not cystitis.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B virus. This is because Hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, not an RNA virus. The other choices, A (Hepatitis G virus), C (Hepatitis A virus), and D (Hepatitis E virus) are all RNA viruses. Hepatitis B virus is unique as it contains partially double-stranded DNA. DNA viruses replicate through a DNA intermediate, unlike RNA viruses which directly use RNA. Therefore, Hepatitis B virus stands out as the only DNA virus among the given options.

Question 7 of 9

The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protozoans. Protozoans lack a cyst stage, which is a protective, dormant stage that allows them to survive in harsh conditions outside the host. Without a cyst stage, protozoans must be transferred quickly between hosts to avoid exposure to unfavorable environments. Molds (A) are fungi that reproduce through spores and do not have a cyst stage like protozoans. Helminths (C) are parasitic worms that have complex life cycles involving different hosts but do not rely on a cyst stage for survival. Viruses (D) are not considered protozoans and do not have a cyst stage, but they are not classified as protozoans.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presented with fever, malaise, and an ulcerated lesion. A Gram stain of the lesion revealed large, Gram-positive rods. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Question 9 of 9

Presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the air can be detected by presence of sanitary representative bacteria. Choose bacteria that are indicators of direct epidemiological danger:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic streptococci. Hemolytic streptococci are pathogenic bacteria that can cause severe infections in humans, indicating direct epidemiological danger. Hemolytic streptococci are commonly found in the respiratory tract and can be transmitted through the air, making them a good indicator of pathogenic microorganisms in the air. Summary: - B: Sarcina, molds, yeast, and Micrococci are not typically indicators of direct epidemiological danger related to pathogenic microorganisms in the air. - Hemolytic streptococci, on the other hand, are pathogenic bacteria that can cause serious infections and are commonly transmitted through the air, making them a suitable indicator in this context.

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