ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B virus. This is because Hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, not an RNA virus. The other choices, A (Hepatitis G virus), C (Hepatitis A virus), and D (Hepatitis E virus) are all RNA viruses. Hepatitis B virus is unique as it contains partially double-stranded DNA. DNA viruses replicate through a DNA intermediate, unlike RNA viruses which directly use RNA. Therefore, Hepatitis B virus stands out as the only DNA virus among the given options.
Question 2 of 9
The function of catalase in bacteria is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: decompose hydrogen peroxide. Catalase is an enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This is important in bacteria to protect them from the harmful effects of hydrogen peroxide, a byproduct of metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as peptidoglycan synthesis is not the function of catalase. Choice C is incorrect as oxidative phosphorylation is a metabolic process unrelated to catalase function. Choice D is incorrect as endotoxin production is not a role of catalase.
Question 3 of 9
“Animalcules†were first described by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Antony van Leeuwenhoek. He was the first to observe and describe "animalcules" (microorganisms) through his early microscopes. Robert Hooke (A) is known for his work with cells but did not discover animalcules. Hans Janssen (C) and John Needham (D) did not make significant contributions to the discovery of microorganisms. Leeuwenhoek's pioneering observations were crucial in the development of microbiology.
Question 4 of 9
“Rabbit fever,†a zoonotic disease, is caused by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabbit fever, or tularemia, is caused by Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is known to infect a wide range of animals, including rabbits. The other choices, Bartonella henselae (causes cat scratch fever), Spirillum minus (causes rat bite fever), and Yersinia pestis (causes plague) are not associated with rabbit fever. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific pathogen responsible for causing tularemia.
Question 5 of 9
A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Amebic dysentery is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, not bacteria. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection. It works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Mebendazole (B) is used to treat certain worm infections, not amebic dysentery. Itrakonazole (C) is an antifungal medication and not effective against parasites. Furacillin (D) is an antibacterial agent and not suitable for treating parasitic infections like amebic dysentery.
Question 6 of 9
Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacterial vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in the vaginal flora, which can be disrupted by frequent douching (eliminating beneficial bacteria), tight clothing (restricting airflow), and non-breathable underwear. Avoiding tight pants and using cotton underwear allow for better ventilation, promoting a healthy vaginal environment. Infrequent douching helps maintain the natural balance of bacteria in the vagina. Choices A and B are incorrect because they recommend practices that can disrupt the vaginal flora and increase the risk of bacterial vaginitis. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the emphasis on avoiding frequent douching, which is crucial in preventing bacterial vaginitis.
Question 7 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by capsules. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.
Question 8 of 9
What drug should be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Doxycycline. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those causing infections like Lyme disease and pneumonia. Doxycycline is often the first-line treatment for these infections due to its efficacy and low risk of resistance. Chloramphenicol (B) has serious side effects and is reserved for specific cases. Penicillin (C) is not effective against all bacteria and may not cover the specific infection. Streptomycin (D) is mainly used for certain types of bacterial infections and is not the optimal choice for the conditions mentioned in the question.
Question 9 of 9
The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protozoans. Protozoans lack a cyst stage, which is a protective, dormant stage that allows them to survive in harsh conditions outside the host. Without a cyst stage, protozoans must be transferred quickly between hosts to avoid exposure to unfavorable environments. Molds (A) are fungi that reproduce through spores and do not have a cyst stage like protozoans. Helminths (C) are parasitic worms that have complex life cycles involving different hosts but do not rely on a cyst stage for survival. Viruses (D) are not considered protozoans and do not have a cyst stage, but they are not classified as protozoans.