Which of the following health teaching concern for the nurse as discharged plan for suicidal patient who had been taking tricyclic antidepressant drugs for 2 weeks and now ready to go home?

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following health teaching concern for the nurse as discharged plan for suicidal patient who had been taking tricyclic antidepressant drugs for 2 weeks and now ready to go home?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When discharging a suicidal patient who has been taking tricyclic antidepressant drugs, it is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the risk for suicide by overdose of the medication. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose can be quite small. This makes them particularly dangerous in cases of overdose, as they can lead to severe toxic effects, including cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death.

Question 2 of 9

In the care of families, crisis intervention is an important part of _____.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Crisis intervention is an important part of secondary prevention in the care of families. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to reduce the impact of a crisis or event that has already occurred. Crisis intervention provides immediate support and strategies to help families cope with and overcome a crisis situation. By addressing the crisis quickly and effectively, secondary prevention can help prevent further negative outcomes and promote the well-being of the family members.

Question 3 of 9

In planning their care Nurse Gina should consider _______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In planning their care, Nurse Gina should consider holistic care, which emphasizes treating the patient as a whole person - including their physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual needs. By addressing all aspects of the patient's well-being, Nurse Gina can provide comprehensive care that promotes overall health and wellness. This approach recognizes that physical health is interconnected with other aspects of a person's life and aims to support the individual in achieving balance and harmony in all areas. Holistic care also encourages the patient to be actively involved in their own healing process, fostering a sense of empowerment and self-awareness.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain at rest, unrelated to exertion, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest, which is not relieved by nitroglycerin. The ECG findings in unstable angina typically show ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion. It is considered a medical emergency as it can progress to a myocardial infarction. Stable angina, on the other hand, is chest pain or discomfort that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Acute myocardial infarction would typically present with ST-segment elevation on ECG, while Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by transient ST-segment elevation due to coronary artery vasospasm.

Question 5 of 9

A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for the management of hypertension because they can help relax blood vessels and slow the heart rate, thus reducing blood pressure. One of the major adverse effects associated with calcium channel blockers is bradycardia (slow heart rate) or even more rarely, tachycardia (fast heart rate). Therefore, in a patient prescribed a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs and symptoms of tachycardia as it can be a serious adverse effect that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with acute exacerbation and severe dyspnea. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals pH 7.28, PaO2 55 mmHg, PaCO2 65 mmHg, and HCO3- 30 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances is most likely present in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis as indicated by the low pH (7.28), elevated PaCO2 (65 mmHg), and elevated HCO3- (30 mEq/L). The primary acid-base disturbance is respiratory acidosis due to the retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 >45 mmHg) leading to an increase in HCO3- as a compensatory mechanism to maintain pH within normal limits. The elevated HCO3- levels (metabolic compensation) are trying to counterbalance the increased PaCO2 levels (respiratory acidosis) by increasing bicarbonate to attempt to normalize the pH. Overall, the ABG analysis shows respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation in this COPD patient with an acute exacerbation and severe dyspnea.

Question 7 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of tissue at 10 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and products of conception are visualized in the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Complete abortion is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. In a complete abortion, all products of conception are expelled from the uterus. Symptoms include vaginal bleeding, passage of tissue, and dilation of the cervix. In this scenario, the presentation of a dilated cervix with visualized products of conception is classic for a complete abortion at 10 weeks gestation.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is most consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia in the affected eye. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (reddening of the conjunctiva and episclera), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (miosis). This occurs due to inflammation within the anterior chamber of the eye involving the iris and ciliary body.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days