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free microbiology test bank questions pdf Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following have a fecal oral route of transmission?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever. Typhoid fever is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning the bacteria from an infected person's feces can contaminate food or water and then be ingested by another person. This can lead to infection and illness. The other choices, diphtheria (A), syphilis (C), and spotted fever (D) are not transmitted through the fecal-oral route. Diphtheria is spread through respiratory droplets, syphilis is primarily sexually transmitted, and spotted fever is transmitted through tick bites. Thus, only Typhoid fever aligns with the fecal-oral route of transmission.
Question 2 of 9
Which type of RNA carries the genetic code for protein synthesis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: mRNA. mRNA carries the genetic code from the DNA in the cell nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis occurs. It serves as a template for protein synthesis by specifying the order of amino acids. tRNA (choice B) brings amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. rRNA (choice C) is a structural component of ribosomes. snRNA (choice D) is involved in RNA processing and splicing, not protein synthesis. Therefore, choice A is correct as it directly carries the genetic code for protein synthesis.
Question 3 of 9
Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most probable cause of the disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Presence of gram-negative bacilli suggests Enterobacteriaceae family, which includes E. coli. 2. Green soluble pigment indicates pyocyanin production, characteristic of E. coli. 3. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. Summary: A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not typically associated with acute cystitis and does not produce mucous colonies. B: Klebsiella pneumoniae may cause UTIs, but does not produce green pigment and is less common than E. coli. D: Salmonella enteritidis is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not cystitis.
Question 4 of 9
Which fact is correct about the nucleoids in bacteria:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because nucleoids in bacteria can vary in number from 1 to 4 depending on the specific bacterial cell and its growth and replication phases. This is due to the dynamic nature of bacterial cells and their genetic material organization. Choice A is incorrect because nucleoids do not contain nuclear membranes or multiple haploid chromosomes like eukaryotic nuclei. Choice B is incorrect as there is no known method of reabsorbing nucleoids by Neisser. Choice D is incorrect as option C is indeed the correct statement regarding the number of nucleoids in bacterial cells.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria is known for causing a disease characterized by a pseudomembrane in the throat?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium causes diphtheria, a disease characterized by a pseudomembrane in the throat. This pseudomembrane is a result of the bacterial exotoxins causing inflammation and necrosis of the throat tissues. Clostridium tetani (A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness, not a pseudomembrane in the throat. Bordetella pertussis (B) causes whooping cough, with symptoms of severe coughing fits but no pseudomembrane. Streptococcus pyogenes (D) causes strep throat, but does not produce a pseudomembrane.
Question 6 of 9
After a prolonged isoniazid treatment, the patient developed polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. What is the most likely mechanism of the described isoniazid side-effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphate synthesis, which is the active form of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for various enzymatic reactions, including neurotransmitter synthesis and myelin formation. Therefore, isoniazid-induced pyridoxal phosphate deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms like polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. A: Disruption of cell membrane synthesis - This is not the mechanism of isoniazid side-effects. B: Inhibition of protein synthesis - Isoniazid does not directly inhibit protein synthesis. C: Inhibition of RNA-synthesis - Isoniazid does not inhibit RNA synthesis; it affects vitamin B6 metabolism.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B cells develop in the bone marrow, not the thymus. Firstly, hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow give rise to B cells. They undergo maturation and selection processes in the bone marrow, not in the thymus. Therefore, choice B is false. On the other hand, choices A, C, and D are correct. A is true because B cells with high affinity to self-antigens undergo apoptosis to prevent autoimmunity. C is true since B cells synthesize antibodies which can be displayed on their surface as B cell receptors. D is true because B cells can undergo class switching to produce different types of antibodies based on the immune response requirements.
Question 8 of 9
Infectious agents of various ultrastructures can be etiological agents of infectious diseases. Which of the groups named below HAS NO cellular structure, protein synthesizing, enzyme and energy systems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viruses. Viruses are acellular, meaning they lack cellular structure, protein synthesizing ability, enzymes, and energy systems. They are essentially genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. Fungi (B), bacteria (C), and protozoa (D) are all cellular organisms with protein synthesizing, enzyme, and energy systems. Viruses rely on host cells to replicate and carry out metabolic functions, making them distinct from other groups.
Question 9 of 9
Which is the most prominent immunoglobulin class present in external secretions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgA. IgA is the most prominent immunoglobulin class present in external secretions like saliva, tears, and mucus. It plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity by preventing pathogens from entering the body. IgG is mainly found in the blood and tissues, IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection, and IgE is involved in allergic reactions. IgA's presence in external secretions helps protect the body from infections at mucosal surfaces, making it the correct choice in this context.