Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?

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microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial endospores. Bacterial endospores have a higher resistance to environmental stresses due to their unique structure, which includes a tough outer layer that protects the spore from harsh conditions such as heat, chemicals, and radiation. This protective layer allows endospores to remain dormant and survive in unfavorable environments until conditions improve. Summary: B: Fungal spores - While fungal spores can also survive in harsh conditions, they are generally not as resistant as bacterial endospores due to differences in their protective structures. C: Enveloped viruses - Enveloped viruses are susceptible to environmental stresses as their lipid envelope can easily be damaged by heat, chemicals, and other factors. D: Vegetative bacterial cells - Vegetative bacterial cells are more susceptible to environmental stresses compared to endospores, as they do not have the same level of protective mechanisms to survive in unfavorable conditions.

Question 2 of 9

Bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment are referred to as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt environments. They have adapted to survive and grow in areas with high salt concentrations. This preference for high salt levels is what distinguishes halophiles from other types of bacteria. A: Calciphiles are bacteria that prefer high levels of calcium. C: Osmophiles are bacteria that thrive in environments with high sugar concentrations. D: Mesophiles are bacteria that prefer moderate temperature ranges for growth. In summary, the correct term for bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment is halophiles, making choices A, C, and D incorrect in this context.

Question 3 of 9

The basic requirements of PCR reaction include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the options are essential for a PCR reaction. A: DNA segment is required as the template for amplification. B: Two oligonucleotide primers are needed to initiate DNA replication. C: Heat stable DNA polymerase (not just heat stable DNA) is crucial for withstanding the high temperatures during PCR. In summary, without any of these components, the PCR reaction cannot proceed effectively.

Question 4 of 9

A family has two children. The younger child is under the year. The child has developed spastic cough attacks. Similar clinical presentation was observed in the elder preschool child one month ago. The doctor suspects pertussis infection. What method enables retrospective diagnostics of this disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serological. Serological testing involves analyzing blood samples for specific antibodies produced in response to the pertussis infection. This method can detect past infections by identifying the presence of antibodies against the pertussis bacteria in the blood. In this case, since the doctor suspects pertussis infection in both children, serological testing can confirm if they have been exposed to the bacteria. Summary: B: Biological testing does not specifically target pertussis antibodies in the blood. C: Bacteriological testing involves culturing bacteria from samples, which may not be as sensitive for retrospective diagnosis. D: Molecular biological testing focuses on genetic material of the bacteria, which may not provide direct evidence of past infection.

Question 5 of 9

The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Question 6 of 9

Hepatitis B infection may present with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hepatitis B infection can present with jaundice due to liver inflammation, elevated serum aminotransferase levels due to liver damage, and sometimes no symptoms in the acute phase. This comprehensive presentation covers the spectrum of possible clinical manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choices A and B are correct as they are common manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choice C is incorrect as hepatitis B infection can indeed present with symptoms, making option D the most appropriate choice.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produced gas in a nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods that are known to produce gas in nutrient broths. Proteus vulgaris is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and can also cause abdominal infections. A: Salmonella typhi typically causes typhoid fever and is not known to produce gas in nutrient broths. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a causative agent of dysentery and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broths. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium and does not fit the description of the organism in the stool culture.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had fecal analysis revealing small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum. These bacteria do not form spores or capsules and thrive in alkaline conditions. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium. Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities. Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments. Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.

Question 9 of 9

A 65-year-old patient with fever and a productive cough had a sputum sample revealing Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is commonly associated with pneumonia in elderly patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium that frequently causes pneumonia in individuals with underlying health conditions. It is known for its ability to produce a distinctive mucoid capsule. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Escherichia coli (C) is a common cause of urinary tract infections but is less likely in this case due to the symptoms and sputum sample results. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is another common respiratory pathogen, but in this scenario, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent based on the patient's age, symptoms, and the characteristics of the bacteria described in the sputum sample.

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