Which of the following growth media is most suitable for isolation of Candida:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Candida is a fungus commonly isolated from clinical specimens. 2. Sabouraud agar is the most suitable medium for Candida due to its low pH and high dextrose content. 3. Low pH inhibits bacterial growth, while dextrose promotes fungal growth. 4. Zeisler media, Chocolate agar, and Muller-Hinton agar are not specific for fungal isolation. Summary: - Zeisler media is used for anaerobic bacteria. - Chocolate agar is used for fastidious organisms like Haemophilus. - Muller-Hinton agar is for antibiotic susceptibility testing, not fungal isolation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever, Brucellosis. Both Typhoid fever and Brucellosis are bacterial infections that can lead to bacteremia, the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. In Typhoid fever, the causative agent Salmonella typhi can enter the bloodstream, causing bacteremia. Similarly, Brucellosis, caused by Brucella species, can also result in bacteremia. Choice A is incorrect because bacteremia is not typically observed in Diphtheria. Choice C, Cholera, is caused by a toxin-producing bacterium and does not usually lead to bacteremia. Choice D, Dysentery, is a condition characterized by bloody diarrhea and is primarily caused by parasites or bacteria that typically do not lead to bacteremia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is classified as a class A bioterrorism agent due to its high virulence and potential for mass casualties. It can cause tularemia, a severe and potentially fatal disease. The other choices, Hepatitis B, E. coli, and Bacillus subtilis, are not considered class A bioterrorism agents. Hepatitis B is a virus causing liver inflammation, E. coli is a common bacterium found in the gut, and Bacillus subtilis is a beneficial bacterium used in various industries. Therefore, Francisella tularensis is the correct choice based on its high pathogenicity and bioterrorism potential.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Fimbriae are hair-like structures on bacteria, not rope-like. 2. Fimbriae are smaller in diameter compared to flagella. 3. Fimbriae are used for adherence or conjugation, not flagella. Therefore, choice B is correct as it incorrectly describes fimbriae, while choices A, C, and D correctly characterize fimbriae.