Which of the following groups of antibiotics finds to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and includes drugs such as Erythromycin and azithromycin?

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Advanced Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following groups of antibiotics finds to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and includes drugs such as Erythromycin and azithromycin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Macrolides. Macrolides bind to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin and azithromycin are examples of macrolide antibiotics. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Fluoroquinolones inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV. C: Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. D: Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.

Question 2 of 5

_____ is an example of an agonist-antagonist opioid.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Definition of agonist-antagonist opioid - It has both agonist (activates opioid receptors) and antagonist (blocks opioid receptors) properties. Step 2: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist opioid that activates and blocks opioid receptors. Step 3: Buprenorphine's agonist activity treats pain, while its antagonist activity reduces abuse potential. Step 4: Diprenorphine, Naloxone, and Morphine do not have both agonist and antagonist properties. Summary: Diprenorphine is a pure antagonist, Naloxone is a pure antagonist, and Morphine is a pure agonist, making them different from the agonist-antagonist opioid, Buprenorphine.

Question 3 of 5

A 40-year old female patient is being followed up for diabetes mellitus. She is currently on Metformin 1 gram twice a day and has been tolerating it well for about six months. Her hemoglobin A1c a week ago was 8.9%. The plan is to initiate liraglutide therapy in addition to the metformin. Which of the following statements is true with regards to liraglutide.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nausea and/or vomiting are common side effects of therapy. Liraglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. The side effects of liraglutide often include gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting. This side effect is commonly seen in patients initiating liraglutide therapy. Choices A and D are incorrect as liraglutide should not be stored in the refrigerator or freezer before use, and it is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly into the upper arm. Choice B is incorrect as Bydureon is a brand name for exenatide, not liraglutide.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with COPD is acutely hypercapneic. Which respiratory therapy should you prescribe to lower the patient's carbon dioxide concentration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxygen via a nasal cannula 2L/minute. In hypercapneic COPD patients, supplemental oxygen helps reduce the respiratory drive, leading to decreased carbon dioxide levels. Salmeterol and fluticasone propionate are used for long-term maintenance in COPD and do not address acute hypercapnia. Albuterol nebulizer is used for bronchodilation and does not directly lower carbon dioxide levels. Oxygen therapy is the most appropriate immediate intervention to address acute hypercapnia in COPD patients.

Question 5 of 5

Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered when what are prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered with antibiotics because antibiotics can disrupt the balance of good and bad bacteria in the gut, leading to digestive issues. Probiotics help restore the balance by introducing beneficial bacteria. Antibiotics do not affect the same mechanisms as antidiarrheals, antihistamines, or antihypertensives, so co-administration with probiotics is not necessary for these medications.

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