Which of the following group of clients should be assessed for pheochromocytoma?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following group of clients should be assessed for pheochromocytoma?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) Clients with hypertension that is difficult to control should be assessed for pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma is a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that can cause excess production of catecholamines, leading to symptoms like severe hypertension. Therefore, individuals with uncontrolled hypertension should be evaluated for this condition. Option B) Clients with high blood glucose levels are more indicative of conditions like diabetes rather than pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma does not typically present with high blood glucose levels. Option C) Clients who take more than two medicines to control their blood pressure may have resistant hypertension, but this alone is not a specific indicator for pheochromocytoma. Option D) Clients with either primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency would not typically present with symptoms suggestive of pheochromocytoma. Adrenal insufficiency is characterized by low levels of adrenal hormones, which is distinct from the excess catecholamines seen in pheochromocytoma. Educational context: Understanding the signs and symptoms of pheochromocytoma is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in primary care or endocrinology. Recognizing the appropriate patient populations for further evaluation can lead to timely diagnosis and management of this potentially life-threatening condition. By assessing patients with difficult-to-control hypertension for pheochromocytoma, healthcare providers can ensure comprehensive care and appropriate treatment strategies for their patients.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is taking care of a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. Which of the following is a priority area for the nurse in evaluating a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of caring for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), the priority area for the nurse to evaluate is hydration status (Option B). This is because HHNS is characterized by severe dehydration due to high blood sugar levels without ketones present. Monitoring hydration is crucial to prevent complications such as hypovolemic shock and organ damage. Skin color (Option A) may provide some information about perfusion, but hydration status is more directly related to the pathophysiology of HHNS. Temperature (Option C) may be elevated due to dehydration, but assessing hydration status takes precedence. Response to diet (Option D) is important in managing diabetes but is not the priority in the acute phase of HHNS. Educationally, understanding the priority assessments in specific conditions like HHNS is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective care. By prioritizing hydration status in this scenario, nurses can intervene promptly to prevent further deterioration and promote positive outcomes for their clients.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse assesses a client who is scheduled to have a laboratory test to determine if the client’s adrenal glands are hypoactive. What type of testing would the client likely have?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Provocative testing. This type of testing is used to stimulate the adrenal glands to produce hormones, helping to assess their function. Catecholamine testing is specific for hormones like adrenaline and noradrenaline. Suppression testing is used to assess overactivity of glands. Bone marrow testing is unrelated to adrenal gland function. In summary, provocative testing is the most appropriate choice to evaluate adrenal gland activity.

Question 4 of 5

The house officer considers prescribing nadolol for a 53-year-old patient. Which of the following preexisting conditions (co-morbidities) would most likely contraindicate safe use of this drug?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asthma. Nadolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which can lead to bronchoconstriction and worsen asthma symptoms due to its effect on beta-2 receptors in the lungs. This can be dangerous for patients with asthma as it can exacerbate respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for nadolol as it can actually be beneficial in these conditions by reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

Question 5 of 5

A 66-year-old female with a long history of heavy smoking presents to her doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and chronic coughing that has been present for about 2 years and has been worsening in frequency. The doctor decides to prescribe a bronchodilator agent that has minimal cardiac side effects, since the patient also has an extensive cardiac history. Which medication did the doctor likely prescribe?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ipratropium. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that has minimal cardiac side effects. It is commonly used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma. In this case, the patient's history of heavy smoking, shortness of breath, and chronic coughing suggests a respiratory condition like COPD. Albuterol (choice A) is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator that can have cardiac side effects such as palpitations and increased heart rate. Prazosin (choice B) is an alpha-blocker used for hypertension and has no bronchodilator effects. Atenolol (choice C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and can worsen bronchospasm in patients with respiratory conditions. Therefore, the doctor likely prescribed Ipratropium to address the patient's respiratory symptoms while minimizing cardiac side effects.

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