ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following factors should a nurse consider when assessing a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient's age and mobility. Age and mobility are key factors in pressure ulcer development as elderly and immobile patients are at higher risk due to decreased circulation and pressure on skin. Family medical history (B) is not directly linked to pressure ulcers. Frequency of hospital visits (C) is not a determining factor, and patient's education level (D) does not directly impact pressure ulcer risk. In summary, assessing age and mobility helps identify high-risk patients for developing pressure ulcers.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 4 of 9
What should be the first step in managing a client with suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step is to immobilize the spine (A) in a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. This helps to stabilize the spine and prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury. Providing pain relief (B) should come after immobilization. Assessing for signs of spinal shock (C) is important but comes after immobilization. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be part of immobilization but is not the first step.
Question 5 of 9
A woman has noticed that her son, who has a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: impetigo. The characteristics of moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base are classic features of impetigo, a bacterial skin infection commonly seen in children. Impetigo is highly contagious and commonly affects the face and buttocks. The presence of blisters and scabs further supports the diagnosis of impetigo. Explanation of other choices: A: Eczema typically presents as dry, itchy patches of skin with redness and scaling. It does not usually manifest as vesicles or blisters. C: Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, presents as a painful rash with grouped vesicles on one side of the body along a nerve pathway. It is uncommon in children and usually affects older individuals. D: Diaper dermatitis is a common rash in infants due to prolonged skin exposure to urine and feces. It typically presents as redness, irritation, and possibly skin breakdown in the diaper
Question 6 of 9
What is the most appropriate action for a nurse when caring for a client with severe hypothermia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer warm IV fluids. This is because in severe hypothermia, the body's core temperature drops dangerously low, leading to decreased circulation and potential organ failure. Administering warm IV fluids helps to gradually raise the core temperature and prevent further complications. Choice B (Warming the client with a heating pad) can cause rewarming shock and skin burns. Choice C (Placing the client in a supine position) is not directly related to treating hypothermia. Choice D (Administering analgesics) is not the priority in treating severe hypothermia.
Question 7 of 9
A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her"Adam's apple" that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the lump is mobile and not hard. A cancerous thyroid nodule is typically fixed and hard, whereas a noncancerous nodule is more likely to be mobile and soft. This characteristic suggests it may be a benign condition such as a thyroid cyst rather than a malignant tumor. The other choices are incorrect because A: tenderness does not necessarily indicate benignity or malignancy, C: disappearance when smiling is more related to a salivary gland issue, and D: hardness and fixation are more indicative of a potentially cancerous nodule.
Question 8 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atelectasis and pneumonia. Following abdominal surgery, patients are at risk for atelectasis (lung collapse) due to shallow breathing and pneumonia due to impaired lung function. A nurse should monitor for signs such as decreased oxygen saturation, increased respiratory rate, and crackles on auscultation. Wound infection (A) is a common post-operative complication but not specific to abdominal surgery. Hyperglycemia (B) may occur due to stress response but is not directly related to abdominal surgery. Dehydration (C) is a concern post-operatively, but respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia are higher priority due to potential life-threatening consequences.