ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following explanations by the nurse will help a patient understand what to expect during a bronchoscopy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the procedure of bronchoscopy. The nurse's explanation should focus on the insertion of a small tube through the nose or mouth into the bronchi to visualize the airways. This information helps the patient understand the basic process and what to expect during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as bronchoscopy does not involve breathing a radioactive substance to show diseased areas in the lungs. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no requirement to drink a thick white liquid for bronchoscopy. Choice D is incorrect as dye injection is not a standard part of bronchoscopy, and asking about allergies to dye is irrelevant in this context.
Question 2 of 9
Nurses identifying outcomes and related nursing interventions must refer to the standards and agency policies for setting priorities, identifying and recording expected client outcomes, selecting evidence-based nursing interventions, and recording the plan of care. Which of the following are recognized standards?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (State Nurse Practice Acts) Rationale: State Nurse Practice Acts outline the legal scope of nursing practice, including standards for setting priorities, identifying client outcomes, and selecting evidence-based nursing interventions. These laws are specific to nursing practice, ensuring that nurses follow guidelines tailored to their profession. Nurses must adhere to these standards to provide safe and effective care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Professional physicians' organizations - While physicians' organizations may provide guidelines for medical practice, they do not set standards specific to nursing practice. C: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission focuses on accreditation for healthcare organizations, not setting standards for nursing practice. D: The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality - AHRQ conducts research and provides evidence-based information but does not establish standards for nursing practice.
Question 3 of 9
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Carlos teaches a community adult class about the common symptoms of tuberculosis. Which of the following should Nurse Carlos include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: weight loss. Weight loss is a common symptom of tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism and appetite. This symptom is important to recognize as it can be an early indicator of the disease. Dyspnea on exertion (B) is not a common symptom of tuberculosis, as it typically affects the lungs rather than causing difficulty breathing. Increased appetite (C) is not a typical symptom, as TB usually leads to decreased appetite and weight loss. Mental status changes (D) are not directly associated with tuberculosis and are more commonly seen in other conditions affecting the brain. Therefore, weight loss is the most relevant symptom to include in the teaching material for identifying possible cases of tuberculosis.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff factors predisposes a client to the development of TB?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malnutrition. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to contracting tuberculosis. A well-nourished individual has a stronger immune response to fight off TB bacteria. Exposure to toxic gases (A), congenital abnormalities (B), and obstruction by tumor (C) do not directly predispose a client to TB. Malnutrition is the key factor as it impairs the immune system's ability to combat the TB bacteria effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because respirations of 16 are measurable and quantifiable, making them objective data. Subjective data, like choices A, B, and D, are based on the patient's feelings or experiences and cannot be measured or observed directly. Choice A is subjective as it relies on the patient's self-report. Choice B is subjective as it describes a symptom reported by the patient. Choice D is subjective as it reflects the patient's feeling of nausea. Objective data is essential for making accurate clinical assessments and decisions.
Question 8 of 9
The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows: 1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief. 2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours. 3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order. - Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision. - Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
Question 9 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.