Which of the following enzymes most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of terbinafine in the patient's disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Squalene epoxidase. Terbinafine is an antifungal drug that inhibits squalene epoxidase, a key enzyme in the ergosterol biosynthesis pathway in fungi. Inhibition of squalene epoxidase disrupts fungal cell membrane synthesis, leading to cell death. Thymidylate synthase (A) is involved in DNA synthesis, not the target of terbinafine. Lanosterol synthetase (B) is not a direct target of terbinafine. Transpeptidase (D) is an enzyme targeted by antibiotics like penicillin, not terbinafine. In summary, squalene epoxidase is the correct choice as it is the specific target of terbinafine in fungal cells, distinguishing it from the other options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic that belongs to the group of opioids. 2. Opioids like hydrocodone bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body. 3. By binding to these receptors, hydrocodone modulates pain perception and response. 4. This mechanism of action results in the alleviation of pain in individuals. 5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it accurately describes how hydrocodone works. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants, not opioids like hydrocodone. - Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the mechanism of action of NSAIDs, not opioids. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of local anesthetics, not opioids.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three medications, Diphenhydramine, Loratadine, and Cetirizine, are antihistamines that work by blocking histamine receptors. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine with sedating effects, Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine with non-sedating properties, and Cetirizine is also a second-generation antihistamine. Therefore, all of these medications can effectively reduce allergy symptoms by blocking histamine receptors. The other choices are incorrect because each of them individually is a valid antihistamine used for allergy relief.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoxetine. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that works by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms of anxiety and depression. Sertraline (A) and Escitalopram (D) are also SSRIs commonly used for this purpose, but Fluoxetine is specifically known for treating both anxiety and depression. Clonazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, but it does not directly affect serotonin reuptake.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin in the brain. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin available in the synaptic cleft. This helps regulate mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. Summary: - B: Increasing the release of norepinephrine and dopamine: This is incorrect as fluoxetine specifically targets serotonin reuptake, not norepinephrine or dopamine. - C: Blocking serotonin receptors: This is incorrect as fluoxetine does not block serotonin receptors but rather inhibits its reuptake. - D: Inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine: This is incorrect as fluoxetine primarily affects serotonin reuptake, not dopamine.