Which of the following drugs would be useful to treat the patient's condition of repeated head jerking, blinking, and grimacing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Aripiprazole. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to treat conditions like Tourette syndrome, which presents with symptoms of repeated head jerking, blinking, and grimacing. Aripiprazole works by modulating dopamine and serotonin receptors in the brain, helping to reduce the frequency and severity of these involuntary movements. Option A) Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. While it may help with some symptoms associated with Tourette syndrome, it is not the first-line treatment for the specific symptoms described in the question. Option C) Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine that is often used to treat seizures and anxiety disorders. While it may help with some symptoms of Tourette syndrome, it is not the primary medication used to address the specific symptoms of repeated head jerking, blinking, and grimacing. Option D) Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist primarily used to treat alcohol and opioid dependence. It is not indicated for the treatment of movement disorders like Tourette syndrome. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action and indications of different drug classes is crucial for nursing practice. By knowing which medications are appropriate for specific conditions, nurses can provide safe and effective care to their patients. In this case, recognizing that aripiprazole is the preferred choice for treating Tourette syndrome symptoms can lead to improved patient outcomes and quality of life.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The opening of K+ channels on postsynaptic neurons is a key molecular action that mediates the analgesic effect of opioids like morphine. This action leads to hyperpolarization of the neuron, reducing its excitability and inhibiting pain transmission. Therefore, in a patient with severe pain due to multiple fractures, the opening of K+ channels by morphine would be the most likely mechanism responsible for the analgesic effect.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient self-injected what he believed to be heroin, which is commonly sold on the street. Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid that is often mixed with or sold as heroin due to its powerful effects. Therefore, the patient most likely took Fentanyl, as it is frequently associated with street drugs like heroin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Morphine, which would be contraindicated in the patient. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression, sedation, and potential overdose, especially in patients with compromised respiratory function or history of opioid abuse. B) Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used in anesthesia and chronic pain management. It is often preferred in patients who cannot tolerate other opioids due to its potency and rapid onset of action. C) Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used in the treatment of opioid addiction and chronic pain. It has a ceiling effect on respiratory depression, making it a safer option in patients at risk for opioid overdose. D) Pentazocine is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist used for moderate to severe pain. It has a lower risk of respiratory depression compared to full opioid agonists like morphine. However, it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in patients who are opioid-dependent. Educationally, understanding the contraindications and appropriate use of opioids is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in the context of pain management and patient safety. It is essential to consider individual patient factors, such as respiratory status, opioid tolerance, and history of substance abuse, when selecting the most appropriate opioid for pain control.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Meperidine is a commonly used opioid analgesic that is often used in detoxification programs due to its ability to help manage withdrawal symptoms. In this case, the patient was undergoing a detoxification program supervised by surgery, and a drug was administered intravenously. Meperidine is a likely choice as it can help alleviate withdrawal symptoms and manage pain during the detoxification process.