ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for the patient at this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Caspofungin. This drug is an echinocandin antifungal agent used for serious fungal infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. It is effective against a broad spectrum of fungal pathogens. Terbinafine (A) is used for dermatophyte infections, Griseofulvin (B) is used for superficial fungal infections, and Nystatin (C) is primarily used topically for candidiasis. Caspofungin (D) is the best choice for serious systemic fungal infections due to its broad spectrum and efficacy.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs is used to treat high cholesterol by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ezetimibe. Ezetimibe works by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine, reducing the amount of cholesterol that enters the bloodstream. Atorvastatin and Simvastatin are statins that work by reducing the production of cholesterol in the liver. Fenofibrate is a fibrate drug that helps lower triglycerides, not specifically targeting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly addresses the mechanism of inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine.
Question 3 of 5
A 50-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed tramadol. Tramadol works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that exerts its effects through weak opioid receptor binding and inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake. This dual mechanism of action contributes to its analgesic properties by modulating pain perception in the central nervous system. Option A is incorrect as tramadol's opioid receptor binding is weak compared to other opioids. Option C is incorrect as tramadol does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis like NSAIDs. Option D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily increase dopamine release.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old female with chronic heart failure is prescribed hydralazine. Hydralazine works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hydralazine works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle through a direct vasodilatory effect, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance and afterload. This relaxation occurs by increasing nitric oxide production, which promotes vasodilation. This mechanism helps reduce the workload on the heart and improve cardiac output in patients with heart failure. Choice B is incorrect because hydralazine does not block beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. Choice C is incorrect because hydralazine does not directly affect sodium excretion in the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because hydralazine does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II; that is the mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to treat the symptoms of an overactive bladder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that helps relax the bladder muscles, reducing urinary urgency and frequency in overactive bladder. Oxybutynin blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for bladder contractions. This effect helps control symptoms of overactive bladder. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Loratadine is an antihistamine used for allergies and does not treat overactive bladder symptoms. C: Gabapentin is used for nerve pain and seizures, not specifically for overactive bladder. D: Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant used for muscle spasms, not for overactive bladder symptoms.