Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to suppress choreic movements and agitated behavior in the 35-year-old man with Huntington chorea?

Correct Answer: F

Rationale: Haloperidol is the most appropriate choice for this patient with Huntington chorea as it is a typical antipsychotic that can help suppress choreic movements and agitated behavior. Haloperidol is commonly used to manage the motor symptoms associated with Huntington's disease, making it the best option in this case. Additionally, the patient's symptoms of persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations may also be alleviated by haloperidol, further supporting its use in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient complained of abnormal growth of his breast after receiving a psychotropic drug for 6 months. The most likely cause of this adverse effect is Amitriptyline, as it is known to cause gynecomastia (abnormal breast growth) as a side effect. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can lead to hormonal imbalances and breast enlargement in males. The other options, such as Haloperidol and Risperidone, are less likely to cause this specific symptom.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely drug prescribed for the 43-year-old man with major depressive disorder is Venlafaxine (Option C). Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) commonly used to treat major depressive disorder due to its effectiveness in addressing both serotonin and norepinephrine imbalances associated with depression. Option A, Amitriptyline, is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not typically the first choice for treating major depressive disorder in current practice due to its side effect profile and the availability of newer, better-tolerated options like SSRIs and SNRIs. Option B, Citalopram, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression. While it is effective for many individuals with major depressive disorder, in this case, the man's likely presentation of norepinephrine-related symptoms would make an SNRI like Venlafaxine a more suitable choice. Option D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety and not a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder. It may be prescribed for comorbid anxiety symptoms but would not be the primary choice for treating major depressive disorder. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind selecting specific medications for different mental health conditions is crucial for nursing practice. It is essential to consider individual patient factors, symptom presentation, pharmacological mechanisms of action, and potential side effects when making prescribing decisions to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is C) Inhibition of serotonin transporter. This mechanism of action is associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which are commonly used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), including intrusive thoughts. By inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, these drugs increase the availability of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, which helps regulate mood and reduce obsessive thoughts. Option A) Inhibition of monoamine oxidase A is incorrect because MAOIs are not typically used as first-line treatment for OCD and can have dangerous interactions with certain foods and medications. Option B) Blockade of serotonergic receptors is incorrect because blocking serotonin receptors would not address the underlying issue of low serotonin levels contributing to OCD symptoms. Option D) Blockade of beta receptors is incorrect because beta blockers are not typically used in the treatment of OCD and intrusive thoughts. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action of different psychiatric medications is crucial for nurses and other healthcare professionals to make appropriate clinical decisions and provide effective care for patients with mental health disorders. In this scenario, knowing how SSRIs work can help guide treatment choices for patients with OCD symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) M cholinergic receptors. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that exerts its pharmacological effects by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. However, it also has anticholinergic properties, leading to adverse effects commonly associated with muscarinic receptor blockade. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors (option A) are not primarily involved in the adverse effects of imipramine. While imipramine can cause tachycardia, it is more related to its anticholinergic effects rather than beta-1 adrenergic stimulation. 5-HT serotonergic receptors (option B) are targeted by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) rather than tricyclic antidepressants like imipramine. Imipramine's adverse effects are not primarily mediated through 5-HT receptors. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors (option D) are not the main mediators of imipramine's adverse effects. While imipramine can cause orthostatic hypotension due to alpha-1 adrenergic blockade, it is not the key mechanism for most adverse effects seen with this drug. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological actions of drugs like imipramine is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to anticipate and manage potential adverse effects in patients. Recognizing the role of different receptors in drug actions helps in safe medication administration and patient care.