Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluconazole. This drug is appropriate for the patient likely suffering from a fungal infection like Candida. Nystatin (A) is also an antifungal but is more commonly used topically. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Acyclovir (D) is an antiviral used for herpes infections. In this case, the patient's symptoms point towards a fungal infection, making Fluconazole the most suitable choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain. Statins are known to cause myopathy, a condition characterized by muscle pain or weakness. This is due to statins affecting the production of Coenzyme Q10, which is essential for muscle function. Other choices are incorrect because weight loss is not a common side effect of statins; dizziness is more commonly associated with blood pressure medications or other classes of drugs; and statins are actually used to help lower blood pressure in patients with hypertension, so it is not a common side effect of statins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This leads to vasodilation, decreased aldosterone secretion, and reduced sodium and water retention, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not block beta-1 adrenergic receptors, relax vascular smooth muscle directly, or inhibit aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, blocking the effects of angiotensin II to lower blood pressure. 2. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, not specifically targeting angiotensin II receptors. 3. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, not directly affecting angiotensin II. 4. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that works on the kidneys, not angiotensin II receptors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the activity of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce anxiety. This mechanism of action is effective in treating anxiety disorders. Citalopram and Fluoxetine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) used to treat depression, not anxiety. Propranolol is a beta-blocker primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart-related conditions, not anxiety. Therefore, Lorazepam is the correct choice for enhancing GABA activity to treat anxiety.