Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Voriconazole. This drug is appropriate for the patient as it is a broad-spectrum antifungal agent commonly used to treat invasive fungal infections. It is effective against a wide range of fungal species, including Candida and Aspergillus. Voriconazole has good tissue penetration and high bioavailability, making it suitable for serious systemic fungal infections. Flucytosine (A) is mainly used in combination with other antifungal agents and is not a standalone therapy. Terbinafine (B) is primarily used for dermatophyte infections and not for systemic fungal infections. Griseofulvin (C) is used for superficial fungal infections like ringworm and is not effective against systemic fungal infections like those requiring Voriconazole.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increasing insulin secretion and inhibiting glucagon release. Liraglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist that stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells and inhibits glucagon secretion. This leads to improved blood glucose control in patients with diabetes. Choice B is incorrect because liraglutide does not primarily work by improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Choice C is incorrect because liraglutide does not inhibit the absorption of glucose in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect because liraglutide does not inhibit the enzyme that breaks down incretin hormones.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Penicillin. Penicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial cell death. This mechanism makes penicillin effective against a wide range of bacterial infections. Azithromycin (B) and Ciprofloxacin (C) are antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis and DNA replication, respectively, not cell wall synthesis. Amoxicillin (D) is also a beta-lactam antibiotic like penicillin, but it is not the best choice here as penicillin is more commonly used for cell wall synthesis inhibition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Methotrexate. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) commonly used to reduce inflammation and slow down the progression of rheumatoid arthritis. It works by suppressing the immune system and reducing the inflammation that causes joint damage. Ibuprofen (B) and Celecoxib (D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that can help with pain relief but do not target the underlying inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Hydroxychloroquine (C) is another DMARD used in rheumatoid arthritis treatment, but it is primarily used for its immunomodulating effects rather than its anti-inflammatory properties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor. 4. By inhibiting its production, enalapril helps lower blood pressure. 5. Therefore, choice B is correct. Summary: A: Blocking angiotensin II directly is the mechanism of ARBs, not ACE inhibitors. C: Enalapril does not directly affect sodium excretion. D: Enalapril may actually increase potassium levels due to decreased aldosterone production.