Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed for the 12-year-old girl with extensive jaundice?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is commonly prescribed for epilepsy, which can present with symptoms like jaundice. As a 12-year-old girl with extensive jaundice, the most likely underlying condition is epilepsy, making lamotrigine the appropriate choice. Gabapentin (A) is not typically used for jaundice or epilepsy in children. Phenobarbital (C) is an older antiepileptic drug with more side effects than lamotrigine, making it less likely for a pediatric patient. Diazepam (D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures but is not the first-line treatment for epilepsy in children.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Carbidopa) Rationale: 1. Carbidopa is a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor commonly used with levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, can worsen Parkinson's symptoms like cogwheel rigidity. 3. Combining haloperidol with carbidopa can lead to a drug interaction and exacerbate Parkinson's symptoms. 4. Amantadine, pramipexole, and benztropine are commonly used to manage Parkinson's symptoms and would not be contraindicated. Summary: A: Amantadine - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms. C: Pramipexole - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms. D: Benztropine - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C, Mesolimbic pathway, is correct: 1. The mesolimbic pathway is involved in the reward and pleasure system. 2. Dysfunction in this pathway can lead to psychotic symptoms like hallucinations. 3. Antipsychotic medications target this pathway to reduce psychotic symptoms. 4. The patient's symptoms of hearing voices suggest dysfunction in the mesolimbic pathway. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A. Frontal cortex: Primarily involved in executive functions, not directly related to psychotic symptoms like hallucinations. B. Vestibular nuclei: Responsible for balance and spatial orientation, not related to psychotic symptoms. D. Striatum: Involved in motor control and procedural learning, not directly linked to hallucinations or psychotic symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the mesolimbic mesocortical pathway. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in this pathway, reducing dopaminergic transmission. This helps alleviate positive symptoms of schizophrenia like hallucinations and delusions. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Tuberoinfundibular pathway is involved in regulating prolactin secretion, not related to schizophrenia. B: Locus ceruleus is primarily involved in noradrenergic neurotransmission, not the main target for antipsychotics. D: N/A is not a valid answer and does not provide any relevant information.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amitriptyline. The patient's symptoms suggest anticholinergic toxicity, which aligns with amitriptyline's side effects due to its strong anticholinergic properties. Amitriptyline can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Bupropion (A) is unlikely to cause these specific symptoms. Mirtazapine (B) is more sedating than anticholinergic. Paroxetine (D) is an SSRI and does not typically cause anticholinergic toxicity.