ATI RN
Central and Peripheral Nervous System Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levetiracetam. Levetiracetam is a commonly prescribed antiepileptic drug due to its broad spectrum of activity and favorable side effect profile. It is often used as a first-line treatment for various types of seizures. Carbamazepine, valproic acid, and phenobarbital are also antiepileptic drugs, but Levetiracetam is preferred in many cases due to its lower potential for drug interactions and side effects. Therefore, based on the information provided, Levetiracetam is the most likely drug to be prescribed in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient's signs and symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is known to cause a rare but serious skin reaction called Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS). The patient's signs and symptoms are consistent with SJS, which include fever, sore throat, skin rash, and blistering. Gabapentin (A), Clonazepam (C), and Phenytoin (D) are not commonly associated with SJS. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to cause SJS, unlike Lamotrigine which is a known culprit for this severe skin reaction.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed for the 12-year-old girl with extensive jaundice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is commonly prescribed for epilepsy, which can present with symptoms like jaundice. As a 12-year-old girl with extensive jaundice, the most likely underlying condition is epilepsy, making lamotrigine the appropriate choice. Gabapentin (A) is not typically used for jaundice or epilepsy in children. Phenobarbital (C) is an older antiepileptic drug with more side effects than lamotrigine, making it less likely for a pediatric patient. Diazepam (D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures but is not the first-line treatment for epilepsy in children.
Question 4 of 5
Which drug was most likely prescribed for the 44-year-old woman with poorly controlled simple partial seizures that was only partially effective with valproic acid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the patient has poorly controlled simple partial seizures. Step 2: Valproic acid is partially effective. Step 3: Consider alternative options for drug-resistant partial seizures. Step 4: Perampanel is an FDA-approved treatment for partial-onset seizures in patients aged 12 and older. Step 5: Perampanel works by blocking glutamate receptors, reducing neuronal excitability. Therefore, it is the most appropriate choice for this patient. Other choices are not specifically indicated for partial seizures or have different mechanisms of action.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated for the patient with cogwheel rigidity being treated with haloperidol?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Carbidopa) Rationale: 1. Carbidopa is a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor commonly used with levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, can worsen Parkinson's symptoms like cogwheel rigidity. 3. Combining haloperidol with carbidopa can lead to a drug interaction and exacerbate Parkinson's symptoms. 4. Amantadine, pramipexole, and benztropine are commonly used to manage Parkinson's symptoms and would not be contraindicated. Summary: A: Amantadine - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms. C: Pramipexole - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms. D: Benztropine - Not contraindicated, can be used to manage Parkinson's symptoms.