Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed for the 45-year-old man recently diagnosed with partial seizures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the neurologist decided to add a second-generation antiepileptic drug that blocks voltage-gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels and may inhibit the synaptic release of glutamate. Among the choices, Lamotrigine fits this description as it is known to block voltage-gated sodium channels, making it the most likely drug prescribed for the patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The recently approved drug that acts with a novel mechanism of action, a noncompetitive blockade of AMPA receptors on brain neurons, is Perampanel. Given that the patient had poorly controlled seizures with valproic acid, adding Perampanel would provide a different mechanism of action to improve seizure control.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Carbidopa is a drug that inhibits the peripheral metabolism of levodopa, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine. In this patient with decreased dopamine metabolism in the striatum, adding carbidopa to the regimen would further enhance the availability of levodopa in the brain, thereby improving symptoms of parkinsonism. The other options do not directly address the issue of decreased dopamine metabolism in the striatum.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.