Which of the following drugs was most likely given?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flucytosine. Flucytosine is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections like cryptococcal meningitis. The other options, Fluorouracil and Cytarabine, are chemotherapy drugs used for cancer treatment. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections. Flucytosine is the most likely drug given in this scenario due to its specific indication for fungal infections, which aligns with the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Duloxetine is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Step 2: SNRIs work by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. Step 3: By inhibiting the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, duloxetine helps increase their levels in the brain, which can improve mood and alleviate depression. Step 4: Therefore, duloxetine is the correct choice for a medication that treats depression by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine. Summary: A: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), not affecting norepinephrine. C: Sertraline is also an SSRI, not targeting norepinephrine reuptake. D: Venlafaxine is an SNRI like duloxetine, but it specifically targets serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake, making

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic that belongs to the group of opioids. 2. Opioids like hydrocodone bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body. 3. By binding to these receptors, hydrocodone modulates pain perception and response. 4. This mechanism of action results in the alleviation of pain in individuals. 5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it accurately describes how hydrocodone works. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants, not opioids like hydrocodone. - Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the mechanism of action of NSAIDs, not opioids. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of local anesthetics, not opioids.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three medications, Diphenhydramine, Loratadine, and Cetirizine, are antihistamines that work by blocking histamine receptors. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine with sedating effects, Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine with non-sedating properties, and Cetirizine is also a second-generation antihistamine. Therefore, all of these medications can effectively reduce allergy symptoms by blocking histamine receptors. The other choices are incorrect because each of them individually is a valid antihistamine used for allergy relief.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoxetine. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that works by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms of anxiety and depression. Sertraline (A) and Escitalopram (D) are also SSRIs commonly used for this purpose, but Fluoxetine is specifically known for treating both anxiety and depression. Clonazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, but it does not directly affect serotonin reuptake.