Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient's syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Haloperidol. The patient's syndrome is most likely caused by Haloperidol, an antipsychotic drug known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism. Imipramine (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant associated with anticholinergic effects. Temazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine used for insomnia. Fluoxetine (D) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and not typically associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Therefore, the most likely culprit is Haloperidol due to its known side effect profile.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 5-HT serotonergic receptors. This is because drugs that affect serotonin receptors can cause adverse effects such as serotonin syndrome, which presents with symptoms like confusion, agitation, and hyperthermia. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors (A) are involved in heart function, not typically associated with adverse effects. M cholinergic receptors (C) mediate the parasympathetic nervous system and are unlikely to cause adverse effects in this scenario. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors (D) are involved in vasoconstriction and blood pressure regulation, not commonly linked to adverse drug effects in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bupropion. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), meaning it blocks the reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine by brain neurons, leading to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain. This mechanism of action is specifically associated with bupropion and not the other choices. Methylphenidate primarily affects dopamine reuptake, Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant that modulates glutamate release, and Aripiprazole is a partial dopamine agonist. Therefore, only bupropion matches the criteria of decreasing reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbamazepine. It is appropriate for a patient planning to become pregnant due to its lower risk of teratogenic effects compared to other antiepileptic drugs. Carbamazepine is also recommended as a first-line treatment for epilepsy in pregnancy. Valproic acid (B) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its high risk of causing neural tube defects. Quetiapine (C) and Haloperidol (D) are antipsychotic drugs not typically used for patients planning to become pregnant.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a diuretic commonly used to treat hypertension and edema by increasing urinary output. In this case, it can help alleviate the patient's urinary symptoms by reducing fluid retention. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that may be too potent for this scenario. Amiloride (C) and Spironolactone (D) are potassium-sparing diuretics that may not address the underlying cause of the urinary symptoms.