Which of the following drugs is used for the management of seizures in patients with epilepsy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug commonly used to manage seizures in patients with epilepsy. It works by stabilizing the neuronal membranes and inhibiting the spread of seizure activity. Aspirin (A) is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory drug, not used for seizures. Metformin (C) is used for diabetes, not seizures. Furosemide (D) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not seizures. Therefore, Phenytoin is the correct choice for managing seizures in patients with epilepsy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys to inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions. This leads to increased excretion of water and electrolytes, reducing fluid volume and relieving congestion in heart failure patients. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide does not directly inhibit aldosterone. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide does not affect myocardial contractions but rather fluid balance. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide's primary mechanism of action is not related to relaxing vascular smooth muscle.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. Atorvastatin is a statin drug that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, atorvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the body, leading to decreased levels of LDL cholesterol. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin does not increase cholesterol synthesis, bind bile acids, or directly increase HDL cholesterol levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Sertraline belongs to this class of antidepressants, which work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its levels in the brain. This helps alleviate symptoms of depression. Sertraline is not classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) like venlafaxine (Effexor) or duloxetine (Cymbalta), nor a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) such as amitriptyline. It is also not a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) like phenelzine (Nardil) or selegiline (Emsam). SSRI is the most appropriate classification for sertraline based on its mechanism of action and therapeutic use in depression.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because angina is caused by an inadequate supply of oxygen to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain. Extreme binding of noradrenaline due to upregulation can lead to increased constriction of blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the heart. This exacerbates the oxygen supply-demand imbalance, triggering angina. A: Blocking beta1 receptors with constant noradrenaline binding would decrease the effects of noradrenaline, potentially reducing heart rate and blood pressure, but it would not directly cause angina. B: Activating beta2 receptors would cause vasodilation, increasing blood flow to the heart, which is opposite to the mechanism of angina. C: Beta1 receptors not being active anymore would lead to a decrease in heart rate and contractility, but this state would not directly induce angina.