Which of the following drugs is not used to treat influenza?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Chlorhexidine belongs to the group of biguanides, which are commonly used for disinfecting hands, skin, and mucous membranes. Step 2: It is known to have broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against various pathogens. Step 3: The usage of chlorhexidine in healthcare settings for preoperative skin preparation and surgical hand scrub is well-established. Step 4: The effectiveness and safety profile of chlorhexidine make it a preferred choice for disinfection purposes. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not characterized by strong human toxicity. - Option B is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not classified as an alcohol and is primarily used for disinfecting hands, skin, and mucous membranes. - Option D is incorrect as chlorhexidine has a wide range of applications in disinfection, especially in healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. The Bezredka method involves introducing small amounts of the antigen to which the individual is allergic, leading to the binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. This process desensitizes the immune system and prevents anaphylactic shock by reducing the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Rationale: 1. A: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 is incorrect because the Bezredka method primarily targets IgE, not IgG2. 2. B: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance is incorrect as this method aims to block the allergic response rather than induce tolerance. 3. D: Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not directly inhibit the synthesis of mast cell mediators, but rather blocks their release by binding IgE.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Parodontosis is a condition caused by bacterial infection, not protozoal infection. Metronidazole is an effective antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the oral cavity, including those associated with parodontosis. Levamisole is an anthelmintic drug used to treat parasitic worm infections, not suitable for parodontosis. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not indicated for parodontosis. Mykoseptin is not a recognized drug and is likely a distractor. Therefore, based on the bacterial nature of parodontosis, Metronidazole is the appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Thin, pale pink microorganisms with spiral coils suggest Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. 2. Staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method highlights the characteristic morphology of T. pallidum. 3. Syphilis presents with various stages and symptoms, correlating with the lymph node involvement. 4. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, presenting with different clinical features. 5. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia species, which do not match the description. 6. Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which have distinct morphology and staining properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria species. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on cell wall composition. Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane, making them appear pink under the microscope. Streptococcus species (B) are Gram-positive cocci with a thick peptidoglycan layer, appearing purple. Bacillus (C) and Clostridium (D) species are Gram-positive rods, not Gram-negative cocci. Thus, the correct answer is A because Neisseria species are the only Gram-negative cocci among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid-fast stain. This stain is used for diagnosing tuberculosis due to the unique cell wall composition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which resists decolorization by acid-alcohol. This allows the bacteria to retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope. Gram stain (B) is not suitable for Mycobacterium tuberculosis as it is gram-positive but does not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. Negative stain (C) is not used for bacterial identification. Simple stain (D) does not differentiate acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: genes with plasmid location. Clostridium tetani produces exotoxins through genes located on plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic elements that carry additional genes. These genes encode for the production of exotoxins in Clostridium tetani. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani does produce exotoxins, it does not have only endotoxin activity, and the genes responsible for exotoxin production are located on plasmids, not solely on the chromosome or both chromosome and plasmid.