Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lipophilization is the process of removing water from cells under deep vacuum in a frozen state. Dehydration of the cell at a low temperature helps to preserve the cellular structure and components. Choice B is incorrect as hydration does the opposite of what lipophilization aims to achieve. Choice C is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve enriching cells with proteins. Choice D is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve removing protein content from cells.