ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Endocrine System Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following drugs is most useful for the treatment of absence seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lamotrigine, a broad-spectrum antiepileptic, treats absence seizures by stabilizing sodium channels and inhibiting glutamate release, though less specific than ethosuximide. Topiramate and levetiracetam manage multiple seizure types but aren't first-line for absence. Tiagabine, a GABA reuptake inhibitor, may worsen absence seizures. Zonisamide has broad efficacy but less absence focus. While ethosuximide is gold standard, lamotrigine's utility in absence, especially in mixed epilepsies, and clinical evidence make it the most useful here among options.
Question 2 of 9
What is/are the major adverse/side effects of regular insulin? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Hypoglycemia is a major adverse effect of regular insulin. This occurs when insulin lowers blood glucose levels too much, causing symptoms such as sweating, shaking, confusion, and even loss of consciousness if severe.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for a patient who has an epidural catheter for pain relief. One of the orders is for enoxaparin (Lovenox), a low“molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). What is the nurse™s priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the prescriber because the administration of LMWH (such as enoxaparin) is contraindicated in patients with epidural catheters due to the increased risk of spinal or epidural hematoma formation. Spinal or epidural hematoma can lead to serious neurologic complications, including paralysis. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to verify the order with the prescriber and explore alternative anticoagulant options that are safe to use in patients with epidural catheters. Giving the LMWH as ordered without addressing this contraindication could result in harm to the patient.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse acknowledges that the first-line drug for treating this client's blood pressure might be which drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are considered a first-line drug for treating hypertension in many patients. They work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. ACE inhibitors are well tolerated and have been shown to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events and mortality in patients with hypertension. Other medication classes such as diuretics, alpha blockers, and alpha/beta blockers may also be used in the management of hypertension but ACE inhibitors are often preferred as a first-line therapy due to their efficacy, safety profile, and proven outcomes in hypertension management.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following drugs is most useful for the treatment of absence seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lamotrigine, a broad-spectrum antiepileptic, treats absence seizures by stabilizing sodium channels and inhibiting glutamate release, though less specific than ethosuximide. Topiramate and levetiracetam manage multiple seizure types but aren't first-line for absence. Tiagabine, a GABA reuptake inhibitor, may worsen absence seizures. Zonisamide has broad efficacy but less absence focus. While ethosuximide is gold standard, lamotrigine's utility in absence, especially in mixed epilepsies, and clinical evidence make it the most useful here among options.
Question 6 of 9
The client takes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) but forgets to tell the physician about this drug when a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) drug is prescribed for depression. What will the best assessment by the nurse reveal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine with MAOIs risks hypertensive crisis due to norepinephrine excess, a life-threatening interaction. Depression , seizures , and allergy control are secondary. D prioritizes urgent assessment, making it the best focus.
Question 7 of 9
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which symptom should the nurse teach the client to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lithium stabilizes mood but risks toxicity (e.g., >1.5 mEq/L), causing tremors , a neurologic sign needing reporting to adjust dosing or check levels. Thirst and weight gain are common, manageable. Nausea occurs but is less urgent unless severe. Tremors indicate potential overdose, critical in bipolar disorder where narrow therapeutic range demands vigilance, making C the key symptom to report.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Neoral). The nurse observes an elevation in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of sweating and
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in post-renal transplantation clients to prevent organ rejection. One of the common side effects of cyclosporine is hypertension, which can lead to an elevation in pulse rate. The increase in pulse rate is a compensatory mechanism by the body in response to increased blood pressure. Additionally, sweating can also be a side effect of cyclosporine, adding to the client's discomfort. Therefore, when a nurse observes an elevation in pulse rate along with sweating in a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine, it is important to monitor closely for signs of hypertension and assess the need for further evaluation or intervention.
Question 9 of 9
Warfarin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is highly bioavailable (near 100%), so 90% is close and true. It doesn't inactivate vitamin K but inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing clotting factor synthesis, making that false. It can paradoxically cause venous thrombosis (e.g., skin necrosis) early in therapy due to protein C depletion, a true statement. Initial loading is typically 5-10 mg, not 0.5 mg, so that's false. Metronidazole increases its effect via metabolism inhibition, not bactericidal action. The thrombosis risk is a rare but serious side effect, highlighting the need for bridging with heparin during initiation.