Which of the following drugs is most likely to induce hepatic injury?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Troglitazone. Troglitazone is known to induce hepatic injury due to its potential to cause liver toxicity. Troglitazone was withdrawn from the market due to its severe hepatotoxic effects. Ciglitazone, Pioglitazone, and Rosiglitazone are other thiazolidinediones, but they are not as strongly associated with liver injury as Troglitazone.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 28 days. The average menstrual cycle typically lasts around 28 days, starting from the first day of one period to the first day of the next. This duration allows for the completion of the hormonal changes and phases involved in the menstrual cycle, including menstruation, the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of a menstrual cycle and may not provide sufficient time for these hormonal processes to occur properly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: L-dopa. L-dopa is the most effective drug for Parkinson's disease as it is a precursor to dopamine, which helps alleviate symptoms. Benztropine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used for tremors, not as effective as L-dopa. Bromocriptine (C) is a dopamine agonist, less effective than L-dopa. Haloperidol (D) is an antipsychotic and not used as a first-line treatment for Parkinson's.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinergics. Drug-induced parkinsonism is caused by certain medications such as antipsychotics. Anticholinergics help alleviate the symptoms by blocking the activity of acetylcholine, which is increased in parkinsonism. Levodopa and Carbidopa are typically used in Parkinson's disease, not drug-induced parkinsonism. Seligiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used in Parkinson's disease, but not specifically for drug-induced parkinsonism. Therefore, anticholinergics are the drug of choice for drug-induced parkinsonism due to their mechanism of action in blocking acetylcholine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Methadone. Methadone is a full opioid agonist because it activates opioid receptors fully, resulting in analgesia and other opioid effects. Methadone is used for opioid dependence treatment due to its agonistic properties. Buprenorphine (B) is a partial agonist with less intrinsic activity than full agonists. Naloxone (C) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose reversal. Flumazenil (D) is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, not an opioid agonist. In summary, methadone is the correct choice as it is a full opioid agonist compared to the other options with different mechanisms of action.