ATI RN
Learning Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drugs is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A client has been severely depressed and suicidal. After admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit, antidepressant medication is administered. As the client becomes more energized and communicative, what should be the priority nursing intervention for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increasing the vigilance regarding the client's suicidal precautions Rationale: 1. The client was admitted for severe depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a high suicide risk. 2. Antidepressants can initially increase energy before improving mood, potentially raising suicide risk. 3. As the client becomes more energized and communicative, the risk of impulsive actions, including suicide, may increase. 4. Therefore, increasing vigilance and maintaining strict suicidal precautions are crucial to ensure the client's safety. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Allowing unsupervised passes may expose the client to triggers or opportunities for self-harm. B: Group activities can be beneficial but do not address the immediate safety concern of suicidal risk. D: Assuming suicidal potential has decreased prematurely can be dangerous, as the client may still be at risk.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for the past 2 weeks. He drools, has hand tremors, and walks with a shuffling gait. The nurse would correctly attribute these behaviors to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pseudoparkinsonism. This is because the patient is showing symptoms commonly associated with this condition, such as hand tremors, shuffling gait, and drooling, which are side effects of chlorpromazine. Akinesia (A) refers to a lack of movement, which is not the case here. Tardive dyskinesia (B) is a late-onset side effect of antipsychotic medications, characterized by involuntary movements, not hand tremors. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (D) is a rare but life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications, presenting with fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status, not the symptoms described in the question.
Question 4 of 5
The patient is receiving digoxin for treatment of heart failure. Which finding would suggest to the nurse that the heart failure is improving?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of peripheral edema. Improvement in heart failure is indicated by reduced fluid retention, leading to decreased peripheral edema. This suggests better cardiac function and reduced congestion in the body. Pale and cool extremities (A) can indicate poor circulation. Urine output of 60 mL every 4 hours (C) may be inadequate for adequate fluid removal. Complaints of increasing dyspnea (D) suggest worsening heart failure.
Question 5 of 5
When is it not possible to blind a clinical trial using a placebo control group?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both A and B scenarios present limitations to blinding with a placebo control group. In scenario A, using a placebo in dangerous treatments like surgery would be unethical due to potential harm. In scenario B, patient participation is crucial, making it difficult to blind the trial. Option C is incorrect as it specifically mentions a standard placebo potentially harming diabetics, which is not a general rule for all clinical trials.