Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?

Questions 52

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question on cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, the correct answer is A) Pinacidil, which is a potassium channel opener. Pinacidil acts by opening ATP-sensitive potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells, leading to hyperpolarization and relaxation of the smooth muscle, ultimately resulting in vasodilation. Option B) Hydralazine is a direct-acting vasodilator that works through a different mechanism by directly relaxing arteriolar smooth muscle, without affecting potassium channels. Option C) Glibenclamide is a sulfonylurea drug used in the treatment of diabetes by stimulating insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, and it does not affect potassium channels in the cardiovascular system. Option D) Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney to inhibit sodium reabsorption but does not have any direct effect on potassium channels in the vasculature. Understanding the mechanisms of action of these drugs is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam as it helps in making informed decisions regarding drug therapy for patients with cardiovascular conditions. Knowing the specific actions of each drug can also aid in predicting potential side effects and drug interactions, ensuring safe and effective patient care.

Question 2 of 5

The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. What is a contraindication to taking this drug?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Renal artery stenosis. ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for conditions like hypertension and heart failure due to their ability to dilate blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. However, in the case of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors can potentially worsen kidney function. This is because ACE inhibitors can further decrease blood flow to the kidneys by dilating the efferent arterioles, which can exacerbate renal insufficiency in individuals with renal artery stenosis. Option A) Hypertension is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors are actually indicated for the treatment of hypertension. Option B) Bronchospasm is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors do not typically cause bronchospasm. In fact, they are often used in the management of heart failure and other cardiovascular conditions. Option D) Heart failure is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for heart failure to help improve cardiac function and outcomes. Educationally, understanding the contraindications of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when administering drugs that can have significant impacts on a patient's condition. This knowledge ensures safe and effective patient care by preventing adverse reactions and complications. Healthcare providers need to be well-versed in the indications and contraindications of drugs to make informed decisions in clinical practice and provide optimal patient care.

Question 3 of 5

The client has a regular rhythm with a rate of 50. What does this represent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Sinus bradycardia. Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular heartbeat with a rate less than 60 beats per minute. A heart rate of 50 falls within the range of bradycardia. Option A) Sinus tachycardia is incorrect because tachycardia refers to a heart rate above 100 beats per minute, which is the opposite of the scenario presented here. Option B) Regular sinus rhythm is misleading as it describes a normal heart rhythm, but it does not specify the rate. In this case, the rate is slower than normal. Option D) Frequent PVCs (Premature Ventricular Contractions) is incorrect as it refers to extra, abnormal heartbeats originating in the ventricles, not a slow regular rhythm as described in the question. Educationally, understanding different heart rhythms and their associated rates is vital for healthcare professionals, especially in pharmacology. Recognizing bradycardia is crucial as it can have clinical implications and may require medical intervention depending on the patient's condition. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and effective patient care.

Question 4 of 5

A 58-year-old male with diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty achieving an erection. He has a history of cardiovascular disease. The physician recommends sildenafil. What is the mechanism of action of this agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Vasodilation. Sildenafil, commonly known as Viagra, is a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor. Its mechanism of action involves vasodilation by inhibiting the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) in smooth muscle cells of the corpus cavernosum of the penis. This leads to increased levels of cGMP, which causes relaxation of smooth muscle and vasodilation, allowing for increased blood flow to the penis and thus aiding in achieving and maintaining an erection. A) Increasing intracellular cAMP is not the mechanism of action of sildenafil. While some drugs like beta-agonists work by increasing cAMP levels, sildenafil works through the cGMP pathway. B) Parasympathetic stimulation and C) Sympathetic stimulation are not related to the mechanism of action of sildenafil. Sildenafil's action is primarily on the vascular smooth muscle and the cGMP pathway. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action of cardiovascular drugs like sildenafil is crucial for nursing practice, especially when caring for patients with conditions like erectile dysfunction and cardiovascular disease. Knowing how these drugs work helps nurses provide safe and effective care, educate patients on medication use, and recognize and manage potential side effects and drug interactions.

Question 5 of 5

A 57-year-old man with congestive heart failure presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. He has +2 pitting edema in his extremities as well. A chest X-ray confirms the presence of pulmonary edema. The patient is given intravenous furosemide to diurese the excess fluid. Where in the nephron does furosemide act?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In understanding the action of furosemide in the nephron, it is important to grasp its mechanism of action as a loop diuretic. Furosemide acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle by inhibiting the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter. By blocking this transporter, furosemide disrupts the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. Option A, the collecting tubule, is incorrect because furosemide does not directly act at this site. Option B, the descending loop of Henle, is also incorrect as furosemide's primary site of action is the thick ascending loop of Henle. Option D, the proximal convoluted tubule, is incorrect as furosemide's mechanism targets the loop of Henle rather than the proximal tubule. Educationally, understanding the specific site of action of furosemide in the nephron is crucial for healthcare professionals when managing patients with conditions like congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema. Knowing where furosemide acts helps in predicting its effects on electrolyte balance and fluid volume regulation, guiding appropriate dosage adjustments and monitoring for potential side effects. This knowledge enhances clinical decision-making and ensures safe and effective pharmacological interventions for patients with cardiovascular conditions.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions