ATI RN
Peripheral Nervous System Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carbamazepine. The patient most likely took Carbamazepine because it is commonly used to treat trigeminal neuralgia, a condition characterized by severe facial pain. Valproic acid is used for seizures and mood disorders, not typically for facial pain. Lamotrigine is primarily used for seizures and bipolar disorder. Ethosuximide is used for absence seizures, not trigeminal neuralgia. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and common drug indications, Carbamazepine is the most likely drug taken.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the drugs would be most appropriate for this boy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Topiramate. For a boy, topiramate is most appropriate due to its efficacy in treating various types of seizures, including absence seizures common in children. It has a favorable side effect profile and can be used as monotherapy. Carbamazepine (A) is not ideal for absence seizures, Diazepam (C) is more for acute seizure management, and Ethosuximide (D) is specifically for absence seizures and may not cover other seizure types.
Question 3 of 5
What is the most appropriate treatment for a 15-month-old boy with repeated episodes of powerful contractions of trunk and limb muscles?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethosuximide. In a 15-month-old with episodes of powerful muscle contractions, the most likely diagnosis is childhood absence epilepsy, which is characterized by brief, subtle seizures involving staring and muscle contractions. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for childhood absence epilepsy due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile in young children. Carbamazepine (A) is not typically used for absence seizures. Phenytoin (C) and Phenobarbital (D) are not recommended for childhood absence epilepsy and may have more side effects in this age group.
Question 4 of 5
Which drug was most likely prescribed for the 45-year-old man with simple partial seizure who was already on lamotrigine and needed additional therapy to decrease the frequency of attacks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Perampanel is a non-competitive antagonist of AMPA receptors, effective for partial seizures. 2. Lamotrigine is commonly used for partial seizures, making Perampanel a suitable add-on therapy. 3. Levetiracetam, Felbamate, and Topiramate are less commonly used or not as effective for partial seizures. Summary: Levetiracetam, Felbamate, and Topiramate are not the best choices due to their lower efficacy or different mechanisms of action compared to Perampanel, which is specifically effective for partial seizures and suitable as an add-on therapy in this case.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following actions most likely mediated the reduction in the patient's tremor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because inhibiting the abnormally high cholinergic tone in the striatum can help reduce tremors. The striatum plays a key role in motor control, and an imbalance between cholinergic and dopaminergic signaling can lead to tremors. By inhibiting the excessive cholinergic activity, the balance is restored, resulting in reduced tremor. A: Inhibition of levodopa metabolism in the striatum wouldn't directly affect tremors as levodopa is a precursor to dopamine. C: Activation of dopaminergic receptors in the striatum may help with motor control but wouldn't specifically address the cholinergic imbalance causing tremors. D: Blockade of β adrenoceptors in skeletal muscle is unrelated to the striatum and cholinergic signaling involved in tremors.