ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following drugs can suppress seizure activity and decrease the frequency of migraine headache?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproate is a medication commonly used to treat seizures and prevent migraine headaches. It acts by suppressing seizure activity and stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Valproate is a broad-spectrum anticonvulsant drug that can be an effective treatment for epilepsy and migraine prophylaxis. It works by increasing the levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity, thus reducing the frequency and severity of seizures and migraine attacks. Glipizide is an oral antidiabetic drug used to treat type 2 diabetes, hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure, and atropine is a medication with various uses, including dilating the pupils and reducing secretions during surgery.
Question 2 of 9
A 20-year-old female with a history of substance abuse has delivered a child whose weight is less than the 10th percentile. Other findings include small head and flat midface. The patient has an atrial septal defect. Which of the following substances may have caused these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) from alcohol causes growth restriction, microcephaly, flat midface, and cardiac defects. Cocaine , Marijuana , Opioids , and Tobacco (E) don't fully match. Alcohol's teratogenicity explains the infant's features.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is doing an assessment data while completing an admission for a patient with a history of liver
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Grade 1+ pitting edema in the feet is the information that should receive the most attention from the nurse when assessing a patient with a history of liver, prednisone, and azathioprine. Pitting edema in the feet may indicate fluid retention, which can be a sign of liver dysfunction or medication side effects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to further investigate the edema, monitor the patient's fluid status closely, and possibly consult with the healthcare team for appropriate interventions. Swollen and pinkish gums may also be important to note, but pitting edema in the feet is more directly concerning in the context of the patient's history and medications.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is commonly associated with adverse effects of pruritus (itching) and cutaneous flushing (reddening of the skin). These effects are often dose-related and can be minimized if the medication is taken with food or slowly titrated up. Tinnitus and urine with a burnt odor are not typically associated with nicotinic acid. Myalgia (muscle pain) and fatigue are more commonly seen with statin medications rather than niacin. Blurred vision and headaches are not commonly reported side effects of nicotinic acid either.
Question 5 of 9
Most β blockers:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Most beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol, metoprolol) have half-lives of 3-10 hours, a true statement reflecting their typical duration, useful for dosing frequency. They have a large, not small, volume of distribution due to tissue penetration, so that's false. Many have good oral bioavailability, not poor, especially non-selective ones. Lipid solubility varies (e.g., propranolol is high, atenolol low), but many cross the BBB, causing CNS effects, though not universally true. They're often metabolized, not excreted unchanged. The half-life range is a key pharmacokinetic feature, guiding their use in hypertension or angina.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin is preparing for orthopedic surgery. The nurse will consult with the surgeon and provide which instruction to the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the patient taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin prior to orthopedic surgery is to continue taking aspirin and stop taking clopidogrel 2 weeks before the surgery. This recommendation is based on the pharmacokinetics of clopidogrel, which has a longer duration of action and requires a longer timeframe for platelet function to return to baseline after discontinuation. Aspirin, on the other hand, has a shorter duration of action, and its antiplatelet effects diminish more rapidly once it is stopped. By continuing aspirin and stopping clopidogrel 2 weeks before surgery, the patient can minimize the risk of excessive bleeding during the surgical procedure while still maintaining some level of antiplatelet effect to prevent thrombotic events.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is reviewing factors that influence pharmacokinetics in the neonatal patient. Which factor puts the neonatal patient at risk with regard to drug therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonates have an immature renal system, which affects the excretion of drugs and their metabolites. This immaturity can lead to prolonged drug half-lives and an increased risk of toxicity. While hyperperistalsis, irregular temperature regulation, and smaller circulatory capacity can influence drug therapy, the immature renal system is the most significant factor. Nurses must consider this when administering medications to neonates and adjust dosages accordingly to ensure safety and efficacy.
Question 8 of 9
While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antilipemic agents are medications used to lower lipid levels in the blood, particularly cholesterol. These medications can have hepatotoxic effects, meaning they can potentially cause liver damage. Therefore, patients on antilipemic therapy need to be closely monitored for signs of liver dysfunction, such as elevated liver enzymes, jaundice, abdominal pain, or unexplained fatigue. Regular liver function tests are often conducted to ensure the liver is functioning properly while the patient is on this therapy. Monitoring for liver dysfunction is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the safety of the patient.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is associated with visual field defects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiepileptics vary in side effects. Valproate causes tremor or hepatotoxicity, not visual defects. Carbamazepine risks rash or hyponatremia, not eyes. Lamotrigine is linked to rash, tiagabine to dizziness, without visual impact. Vigabatrin, a GABA-transaminase inhibitor, causes irreversible concentric visual field defects in ~30-40% of users due to retinal toxicity, a unique and serious adverse effect. This necessitates ophthalmologic monitoring, distinguishing it in epilepsy treatment choices.