ATI RN
Hematological drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drugs are used in patients who have acute and chronic pulmonary disorders exacerbated by large amounts of secretions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with acute and chronic pulmonary disorders exacerbated by large amounts of secretions, the correct drug class to use is mucolytics (Option A). Mucolytics work by thinning and loosening mucus in the airways, making it easier for patients to cough up and clear the secretions. This helps in improving breathing and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Glucocorticoids (Option B) are anti-inflammatory drugs commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions like asthma and COPD but do not directly address the issue of excessive secretions in the airways. Beta adrenergic antagonists (Option C) are primarily used to treat conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles around the airways, but they do not specifically target mucus clearance. Antihistamines (Option D) are used to relieve allergy symptoms but do not have a direct impact on mucus production or clearance. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of different classes of drugs in respiratory conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in settings where patients with pulmonary disorders are common. Knowing the specific mechanisms of action of mucolytics and how they differ from other respiratory medications helps in making informed clinical decisions to improve patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
All of the following statements regarding Phenylephrine are true except for
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of hematological drugs, understanding the pharmacological properties of Phenylephrine is crucial for healthcare professionals. In this question, the correct answer is C: "Vasoconstriction is uncommon with topical agents, but is a concern with oral agents." This statement is false because vasoconstriction is actually a common effect of Phenylephrine, regardless of whether it is administered orally or topically. Phenylephrine is a sympathomimetic amine that acts primarily by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction. Therefore, this statement is inaccurate. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) "Topical agents are usually more effective and work faster." This statement is generally true because topical application allows for direct delivery to the site of action, resulting in faster onset of action compared to oral administration. B) "Topical agents have a shorter duration." This statement is also generally true because topical formulations often have a shorter duration of action compared to oral formulations due to factors such as rapid absorption and metabolism at the application site. D) "Oral agents always lead to rebound congestion." This statement is incorrect because while rebound congestion can occur with the prolonged use of oral decongestants like Phenylephrine, it does not always happen and is not exclusive to oral administration. In an educational context, understanding the differences between oral and topical administration of Phenylephrine is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding its use in clinical practice. By knowing the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of Phenylephrine, healthcare providers can optimize patient outcomes and minimize potential adverse effects.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following biochemical cofactors can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin due to structure very
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) CoQ-10. Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ-10) is a biochemical cofactor that can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin due to its structural similarity to vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors. When CoQ-10 is present, it can compete with vitamin K, reducing the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Option B) Resveratrol is a polyphenol found in red wine that has antioxidant properties but does not impact warfarin's effectiveness. Option C) Glucosamine is a dietary supplement commonly used for joint health and does not interfere with warfarin's mechanism of action. Option D) Coumarine is a compound found in some plants that can serve as a precursor to warfarin, but it does not directly impact warfarin's effectiveness in the body. In an educational context, understanding how different biochemical cofactors can interact with drugs like warfarin is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure the safe and effective management of patients on anticoagulant therapy. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions about drug interactions and potential adjustments to treatment plans to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to prevent or treat thrombosis in clients who cannot take heparin due to heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) Argatroban. Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that is used to prevent or treat thrombosis in clients who cannot take heparin due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is an adverse reaction to heparin that causes a drop in platelet count and can lead to thrombosis. Argatroban works by directly inhibiting thrombin, an essential enzyme in the blood clotting process. Option B) Fondaparinux is a factor Xa inhibitor and is not indicated for use in clients with HIT. Option C) Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor but is not the preferred choice for clients with HIT. Option D) Desirudin is another direct thrombin inhibitor, but Argatroban is the preferred agent for clients with HIT due to its shorter half-life and reversibility compared to Desirudin. Educationally, understanding the different classes of anticoagulants and their indications is crucial for healthcare providers managing clients with thrombotic disorders. Recognizing the specific agents used in different scenarios, such as in clients with HIT, ensures appropriate and effective treatment strategies are implemented to prevent further complications. Argatroban's unique mechanism of action and suitability for clients with HIT make it a key medication to be aware of in hematological practice.
Question 5 of 5
After receiving heparin for a week, a 57-year-old male has been diagnosed with heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Which of the following symptoms should a nursing student expect to see in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Low platelet count and increased development of thrombi mediated by antibody development. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a serious adverse reaction to heparin therapy where the body develops antibodies against heparin-bound platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and consumption, resulting in a low platelet count. This paradoxically increases the risk of thrombosis rather than bleeding due to the formation of platelet-rich clots. Option B) Decreased heart rate and increased peripheral blood pressure is incorrect because these symptoms are not typically associated with HIT. Option C) Pyrexia and profuse diaphoresis are also incorrect as they are not characteristic symptoms of HIT. Option D) Leukopenia and hyperinfective state are not typically seen in HIT. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology of HIT is crucial for healthcare professionals to recognize and manage this potentially life-threatening condition in patients receiving heparin therapy. Being able to identify the symptoms of HIT promptly can lead to timely interventions to prevent serious complications such as thrombosis.