Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment. 2. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, preventing viral replication. 3. Lamivudine, Efavirenz, and Stavudine are not protease inhibitors but work through different mechanisms. 4. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Stavudine is another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Summary: Ritonavir is the correct answer as it directly targets the HIV protease enzyme, unlike the other options which act on reverse transcriptase enzymes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nifurtimox. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for Chagas disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is effective in treating both acute and chronic phases of the disease by reducing parasitemia. Metronidazole (B) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, not trypanosomiasis. Suramin (C) is used for African trypanosomiasis, not American trypanosomiasis. Chloroquine (D) is used for malaria, not trypanosomiasis. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for this patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The main reason for using combination therapy in TB treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. Step 1: TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which has a high mutation rate leading to drug resistance. Step 2: With combination therapy, multiple drugs target different aspects of the bacteria's lifecycle, making it harder for resistance to develop. Step 3: This approach ensures that if one drug becomes ineffective due to resistance, others can still be effective. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the issue of resistance, which is a critical concern in TB treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing side effects, increasing antimycobacterial activity, and providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections are not the primary reasons for using combination therapy in TB.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by antagonizing aldosterone, which is responsible for the symptoms of hypertension, edema, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia seen in adrenal tumor. By blocking aldosterone receptors, spironolactone helps to reduce sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion, thus counteracting the hormonal effects. Bumetanide (choice B) and Furosemide (choice C) are loop diuretics that primarily work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle and are unlikely to be as effective in this scenario. Acetazolamide (choice D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that works in the proximal tubule and is not indicated for the specific hormonal effects seen in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can lead to hyperglycemia by reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in increased blood glucose levels. Thiazides also elevate uric acid levels by reducing its excretion. Therefore, the correct answer is D (Glucose). Incorrect choices: A (Potassium) - Thiazides typically cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. B (BUN) and C (Urea) - Thiazides may cause a slight increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels due to reduced kidney function, but not as significantly as glucose levels.