ATI RN
Assessment of Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as * prophylactic in malaria?:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primaquine. Primaquine is an 8-aminoquinoline antimalarial drug primarily used for the radical cure of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale malaria, not for prophylaxis. Rationale: 1. Primaquine is not recommended for prophylactic use due to its potential for causing hemolytic anemia in individuals with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. 2. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine (Choice A) is a combination drug used for both treatment and prophylaxis of malaria. 3. Proguanil (Choice B) is used for prophylaxis of malaria in combination with other antimalarial drugs. 4. Mefloquine (Choice D) is used for both treatment and prophylaxis of malaria, especially in areas with chloroquine-resistant strains.
Question 2 of 5
A 20 year old male patient is diagnosed with Chaga's disease, Amirican * rypanosomiasis. Whch drug would be the most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suramin. Suramin is the drug of choice for treating Chaga's disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is a specific drug that targets the parasite responsible for the disease. Nifurtimox is used for acute Chaga's disease, not chronic cases like in this patient. Metronidazole is not effective against Trypanosoma cruzi. Chloroquine is used for treating malaria, not Chaga's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate drug for this patient is Suramin.
Question 3 of 5
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of * Tuberculosis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. By using multiple drugs that target different aspects of the bacteria's life cycle, it becomes harder for the bacteria to develop resistance to all drugs simultaneously. This helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective in the long term. Explanation for other choices: A: While combination therapy can sometimes help reduce side effects by using lower doses of each drug, the primary reason for using it in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent resistance, not side effects. C: While combination therapy can increase antimycobacterial activity, the main goal is to prevent resistance, not to enhance the drugs' effects. D: Providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections is not the main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment; the focus is on preventing resistance.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil? *
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that works by increasing cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels. This leads to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation, which helps in treating conditions like erectile dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect because alprostadil does not primarily increase cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). Choice C is incorrect as there is no known mechanism of action involving PD for alprostadil. Choice D is an incomplete option and not a valid answer.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with psychologic disorder is being treated with a drug. Few months * he is worried that he is constantly thirsty and urinates copiously frequently throughout the day and night. Which of the following drugs most likely cause inappropriate secretion of ADH?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lithium. Lithium is known to cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination and thirst. This is due to lithium disrupting the normal function of the kidneys in retaining water. Diazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and does not affect ADH secretion. Haloperidol (C) is an antipsychotic that can cause hyperprolactinemia but not inappropriate ADH secretion. Phenytoin (D) is an anticonvulsant and does not impact ADH secretion.