Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B? *

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A (Lamivudine) is correct: 1. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat chronic hepatitis B. 2. It inhibits the replication of the hepatitis B virus, reducing viral load and liver damage. 3. Clinical studies have shown its efficacy in improving liver function and reducing the risk of cirrhosis. 4. Lamivudine is recommended as a first-line treatment option by major medical guidelines. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Human interferon α: While interferon therapy was previously used, it is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and lower efficacy compared to newer drugs. C. Amantadine: Amantadine is not recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B as it is not effective against the hepatitis B virus. D. (: This is not a valid drug option for treating chronic hepatitis B.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Piperacillin is a semisynthetic penicillin with extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli. Step 2: It is acid-resistant, meaning it can withstand acidic environments in the stomach. Step 3: However, it is not penicillinase-resistant, making it susceptible to penicillinase enzymes. Step 4: Cloxacillin (A) and Amoxicillin (B) are penicillinase-resistant but do not have extended gram-negative activity. Step 5: Phenoxymethyl penicillin (C) is neither acid-resistant nor penicillinase-resistant. In summary, Piperacillin is the correct choice due to its extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli and acid resistance, despite not being penicillinase-resistant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can lead to hyperuricemia, a risk factor for gout. Thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation and potential for gout attacks. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that does not have a significant impact on uric acid levels. Spironolactone (B) and Triamterene (D) are potassium-sparing diuretics and do not directly affect uric acid levels. So, Hydrochlorothiazide is the most likely diuretic causing the gout attack in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na+K+/2Cl- transporter in the renal tubular cell. This transporter is responsible for reabsorbing sodium, potassium, and chloride ions from the urine back into the bloodstream. By inhibiting this transporter, furosemide prevents the reabsorption of these ions, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes, thereby promoting diuresis. Na+K+ ATPase (A) is not the target of furosemide. Na+/Cl- transporter (B) is not the primary mechanism of action for furosemide. Na+H+ antiporter (D) is not the target of furosemide in the renal tubular cell.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, which can be exacerbated when used with potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. This combination can lead to hyperkalemia, necessitating close monitoring of potassium levels. B: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diuretic. C: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, not a diuretic. D: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also cause potassium depletion, but it does not specifically need close monitoring when used with potassium-sparing diuretics.