Which of the following drug combinations would be appropriate for the patient with episodic abdominal pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C) Codeine/acetaminophen for the patient with episodic abdominal pain. Codeine is an opioid analgesic that can help alleviate moderate to severe pain, such as abdominal pain. Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic that can also provide pain relief and can be used in combination with codeine to enhance its efficacy. Option A) Buprenorphine/ibuprofen is not the best choice for episodic abdominal pain as buprenorphine is primarily used for managing opioid dependence and chronic pain, not acute abdominal pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may worsen abdominal pain in some cases. Option B) Morphine/indomethacin is not the most suitable option for episodic abdominal pain as morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that is typically reserved for severe pain, not episodic pain. Indomethacin is an NSAID that can have adverse effects on the gastrointestinal system, potentially exacerbating abdominal pain. Option D) Fentanyl/ketorolac is also not the ideal choice for episodic abdominal pain. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that is typically reserved for severe pain and is not commonly used for episodic pain. Ketorolac is an NSAID that can cause gastrointestinal side effects and is not typically recommended for abdominal pain management. Educationally, it is important for healthcare professionals to understand the appropriate drug combinations for various types of pain to ensure effective and safe pain management for patients. Understanding the mechanisms of action, indications, contraindications, and potential side effects of different analgesic drugs is crucial in making informed decisions when managing pain in clinical practice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that is often used for severe pain, including cancer-related pain. In this case, the patient's pain was initially relieved by ibuprofen but later required a stronger analgesic due to increasing pain intensity. Fentanyl's conversion to morphine in the body makes it a likely choice for managing the patient's continuous but moderate bone pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described in the patient, such as nystagmus, difficulty concentrating, and a pounding heart, suggest overstimulation of the central nervous system. A Glutamate receptor antagonist would help counteract this overstimulation by blocking the excitatory effects of glutamate, providing immediate relief to the patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Naltrexone, an opiate receptor antagonist, was likely administered to the patient to facilitate avoidance from ethanol dependence, as research suggests that compulsive alcohol drinking is influenced by opiate receptor activity. Naltrexone helps reduce the rewarding effects of alcohol, making it easier for the patient to abstain from drinking.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's presentation of agitation, diaphoresis, disorientation, mydriasis, unreactive pupils, and nystagmus is consistent with Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication. PCP is known to produce hallucinations, altered mental status, and physiological effects similar to those described in the case, making it the most likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms.