Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management of African American population?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary. This choice is correct because African Americans tend to respond better to thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers in managing hypertension. Thiazide diuretics are recommended as first-line treatment in this population due to their effectiveness and lower risk of adverse effects. Calcium channel blockers are also preferred as they have shown good efficacy and tolerability. Choice A (Clonidine) is incorrect as it is not recommended as a primary treatment option for hypertension. Choice B (Betablockers) is also incorrect as they are not the preferred initial treatment in African American patients due to lower efficacy compared to other drug classes. Choice D (ACE-1 inhibitors) is incorrect as they are not recommended as first-line treatment in this population, as they may be less effective in African Americans compared to other drug classes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. When reviewing medical records, if a patient is scheduled for surgery and taking metformin, it's crucial to assess for the risk of hypoglycemia. Surgery can impact food intake and medication absorption, potentially leading to low blood sugar levels. This is important to prevent complications during surgery. Choice B: Hemorrhage is incorrect because metformin is not known to directly increase the risk of hemorrhage related to surgery. The main concern with metformin is hypoglycemia, not hemorrhage. Choices C and D were not provided, but the key point is to focus on the risk of hypoglycemia with metformin in a surgical setting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Combination OC. Combination oral contraceptives (OC) containing estrogen are not recommended for breast-feeding mothers due to potential adverse effects on milk supply and composition. Progestin-only methods, such as Depo-Provera (choice A) or progestin-only OC (choice B), are safer options. Intrauterine devices (choice D) are also considered safe for breast-feeding mothers as they have minimal systemic absorption. Therefore, the inappropriate choice for this patient is Combination OC (choice C) due to the presence of estrogen which can affect breast milk quality and supply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: The provider will include information about reporting fever and cough because PPIs can mask symptoms of underlying infections like pneumonia. Prompt reporting is crucial for proper evaluation and treatment. A: Incorrect. There is no established link between PPI use and gastric cancer risk. B: Incorrect. PPIs can be prescribed for short-term or long-term use based on individual needs. D: Incorrect. PPIs are not associated with high magnesium levels; rather, they may sometimes lead to low magnesium levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to intravenous levothyroxine. In myxedema crisis, the patient is severely hypothyroid and unable to absorb oral medications. Intravenous levothyroxine is the most effective route in this situation, as it bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. Option A (Prescribe a B-blocker) is incorrect as it does not address the underlying hypothyroidism. Option B (Increase the dose of levothyroxine) is not appropriate in myxedema crisis due to impaired absorption. Option D (Prescribe methimazole) is used for hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.