ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 Infection Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following does NOT describe Reye's syndrome :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious disorder that primarily affects children and teenagers. It is characterized by an acute encephalopathic illness along with fatty degeneration of the liver and other viscera. Reye's syndrome typically arises after a viral infection, such as influenza or chickenpox, rather than being enhanced by sodium and water retention. This condition is not caused by excessive sodium and water retention but rather by a possible link to the use of aspirin during viral infections in children.
Question 2 of 5
At what point does atropine hit its peak for IM injections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine given via intramuscular (IM) injection typically reaches its peak effects within 15 to 50 minutes after administration. The onset of action is relatively rapid, with faster absorption and distribution compared to oral administration. The effects of atropine can be seen within minutes, reaching peak concentration within the specified time frame. This rapid onset is important clinically when atropine is used to treat conditions such as bradycardia or nerve agent poisoning where a quick response is needed.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is evaluating a client who is HIV positive who is prescribed with pentamidine (Pentam) IV for
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Redness and pain at the site of the infusion can indicate a potential infiltration or extravasation of the medication, in this case, pentamidine (Pentam) IV. Pentamidine is a medication used to treat Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia in HIV patients. Infiltration or extravasation of pentamidine can lead to tissue damage, necrosis, and potentially severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to immediately assess and address any signs of redness and pain at the infusion site to prevent further harm to the patient. This assessment finding should be promptly relayed to the physician for further evaluation and intervention.
Question 4 of 5
Which statement is accurate regarding pharmacotherapy in the older adult?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aging reduces liver/renal clearance, raising plasma levels (e.g., digoxin), heightening response and toxicity risk, per pharmacokinetics. Body water drops, concentrating drugs, not diluting. Doses decrease, not increase-metabolism slows. Absorption may slow, but pH rises, not falls. Plasma increase drives effects, key in elders.
Question 5 of 5
What is the category class of Iron?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Iron is classified as an Antianemic agent. Anemia is a condition characterized by a lack of healthy red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen. Therefore, iron supplements are commonly used to treat iron-deficiency anemia by replenishing the body's iron stores and supporting the production of healthy red blood cells.