ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following does not describe intravenous injection.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "Convenient, safe, economical" does not accurately describe intravenous injection. Intravenous injection is generally considered to be less convenient compared to other routes of administration due to the need for proper training, sterile technique, and close monitoring during drug administration. While it can be effective in delivering drugs quickly and directly into the bloodstream, it is not always the safest or most economical option. Intravenous administration carries risks such as infection, phlebitis, and possible adverse reactions that need to be carefully monitored. Additionally, the cost of intravenous drug administration tends to be higher due to the need for specialized equipment and trained personnel.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is discharging a 35-year-old patient with diabetes who has been prescribed an adrenergic blocking agent. What is the priority teaching point for the nurse to discuss with this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the patient to be instructed to monitor blood sugar levels more frequently because adrenergic blocking agents mask the normal hypo- and hyperglycemic manifestations that normally alert patients such as sweating, feeling tense, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. There is no need to change the diet or the diabetic medications. There may be no signs and symptoms to record because they are blocked by the adrenergic blocker. The nurse should emphasize the importance of frequent blood glucose monitoring and reporting any instability to the healthcare provider.
Question 3 of 5
A patient in the clinic reports difficulty tolerating the current ACE inhibitor medication, and questions if another medication could be used. The nurse correctly suspects the prescriber will choose which medication, which affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and is often used as an alternative to ACE inhibitors. Atenolol (A) is a beta-blocker, spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and adenosine (D) is used for arrhythmias. ARBs like losartan are preferred for patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to side effects like cough or angioedema.
Question 4 of 5
Gold sodium thiomalate is prescribed to a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effects indicates an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A client is prescribed with carbamazepine (Tegretol) for the treatment of bipolar disorder. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is experiencing a side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbamazepine can cause leukopenia, including neutropenia, as a side effect. A neutrophil count of 1,200/mm3 is below the normal range and indicates a potential adverse effect. Platelet count, uric acid, and SGPT levels are within normal ranges and do not indicate side effects. Therefore, the neutrophil count is the concerning result.