ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 3 of 9
In preparation for business trip abroad the doctor was prescribed a histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug as a personal means of disease prevention. What drug was given to the doctor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mefloquine. Mefloquine is a histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug commonly prescribed for prevention of malaria in travelers. It is effective against the liver stage of the malaria parasite, which is crucial for preventing the development of the disease. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used antimalarial drug. Biseptol (C) is a combination antibiotic and is not effective against malaria parasites. Quinine (D) is primarily used for treating malaria, not preventing it, and it is not specifically histoschizontocidal.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement about the epidemiology and specific prophylactic of Haemophilus influenzae is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because there is no effective killed vaccine that is protective against all capsular types of Haemophilus spp. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine primarily targets specific capsular types, not all of them. Choice A is incorrect because non-encapsulated strains can indeed be isolated from healthy carriers. Choice C is incorrect as Haemophilus influenzae is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets, not through the air. Choice D is not correct because Choice B is indeed incorrect, making it the right answer.
Question 5 of 9
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Actinomycosis. Actinomycosis is a chronic suppurative bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which form sulfur granules in purulent masses surrounded by dense fibrous tissue. In this case, the presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthoma cells, and macrophages in the histological examination is characteristic of actinomycosis. The clinical presentation of skin redness, swelling, and abscess formation in the neck area also aligns with actinomycosis. Choice A: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, presenting with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not skin redness and swelling in the neck area. Choice B: Carbuncle is a bacterial skin infection involving a group of hair follicles, typically on the back of the neck, not characterized by fungal druses or sulfur granules. Choice D: Leprosy
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria produce exotoxins that can cause severe dehydration and diarrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces cholera toxin, an exotoxin that causes severe dehydration and diarrhea by increasing the secretion of electrolytes and water in the intestines. Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera, a disease characterized by profuse watery diarrhea. Choice B, Clostridium tetani, produces tetanospasmin causing tetanus, not dehydration or diarrhea. Choice C, Escherichia coli, can cause diarrhea but rarely severe dehydration. Choice D, Shigella dysenteriae, produces Shiga toxin leading to bloody diarrhea, not severe dehydration.
Question 7 of 9
Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.
Question 8 of 9
Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.
Question 9 of 9
The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: virulence. Virulence refers to the degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism possesses. This term specifically describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host. It is a crucial factor in understanding the pathogenicity of different microorganisms. Choice B: strength is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to the disease-causing potential of a microorganism. Choice C: resistance refers to the ability of an organism to withstand the effects of a particular agent, such as a drug or environmental factor. Choice D: competence is not directly related to the disease-causing ability of a microorganism, but rather refers to the ability of an organism to perform a specific function effectively.