Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium known to cause tuberculosis. Step 2: Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not tuberculosis. Step 3: Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Step 4: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not tuberculosis. Conclusion: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium associated with tuberculosis among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the complement fixation test is a serological test that detects the presence of specific antibodies or antigens in a patient's serum. It works by measuring the ability of antibodies to fix complement proteins. Choice A is incorrect because the complement fixation test typically involves several steps, not necessarily three. Choice C is incorrect as standardized complement proteins are commonly used in this test. Choice D is incorrect because sheep red blood cells are not essential for performing the complement fixation test.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: microbemia. When microorganisms enter the circulatory system via the lymphatic drainage, the condition is specifically termed microbemia. This term focuses on the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Rationale: 1. Bacteremia (choice A) refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, not specifically microorganisms as a whole. 2. Septicemia (choice B) is a severe infection causing systemic inflammation due to the presence of pathogens or their toxins in the blood, not limited to microorganisms entering via lymphatic drainage. 3. Viremia (choice D) is the presence of viruses in the bloodstream, not a term used for microorganisms entering through the lymphatic drainage. In summary, the term microbemia accurately describes the scenario of microorganisms entering the circulatory system through lymphatic drainage, making it the correct choice over the other options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods suggest Enterobacteriaceae family. 2. Lactose fermenters narrow down to E. coli. 3. Green colonies on MacConkey agar indicate acid production. 4. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Escherichia coli. Other choices are incorrect as Klebsiella is non-lactose fermenter, Pseudomonas is oxidase-positive, and Proteus is non-lactose fermenter.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Initial diagnosis of influenza suggests a viral illness. Step 2: Presence of maculopapular petechial rash and high fever indicates a systemic infection. Step 3: Symptoms like euphoria, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and excitement are characteristic of epidemic typhus. Step 4: Face hyperemia, sclera reddening, and tongue tremor are specific to epidemic typhus. Step 5: Epidemic typhus is transmitted by body lice, which fits the scenario of a patient without permanent residence. Summary: - Delirium alcoholicum is unlikely due to the specific symptoms and lack of history of alcohol abuse. - Leptospirosis typically presents with jaundice and renal symptoms, not seen in this case. - Measles rash is different from the maculopapular petechial rash described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: flagella. Flagella are whip-like structures that move fluid, mucus, or cells over the surface of a cell. They are longer and fewer in number compared to cilia, which are shorter and more numerous. Fimbriae are small, bristle-like structures that help bacteria attach to surfaces but do not move fluid. Microvilli are tiny projections that increase the surface area for absorption but do not have a role in moving fluid or cells. Therefore, flagella is the correct answer as it specifically fits the function described in the question.