ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.
Question 2 of 9
All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine formation and drug clearance except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tubular filtration. The kidney does not perform tubular filtration as a method for urine formation and drug clearance. The process of urine formation involves filtration, secretion, and reabsorption. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus, where blood is filtered to form the initial filtrate. Tubular secretion involves the active transport of substances from the blood into the renal tubules to be eliminated in urine. Tubular reabsorption is the process of reclaiming useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood. Therefore, tubular filtration is not a valid process in urine formation and drug clearance, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are essential processes in urine formation and drug clearance.
Question 3 of 9
The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following bacteria are known for causing urinary tract infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus) are known to cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urethra. P. aeruginosa can cause UTIs in hospitalized patients with catheters. S. aureus is less common but can lead to UTIs, especially in individuals with underlying health conditions. Therefore, all three bacteria are potential pathogens for UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria can individually cause UTIs, making the correct answer D.
Question 5 of 9
F pili:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because F pili are proteins on the F+ donor cell that are attached to specific receptors on the recipient cell's cell wall. This is essential for the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. Choice A is incorrect because F pili are not made up of nucleotides, but rather proteins. Choice B is incorrect because F pili are not transferred to the recipient cell itself, but they facilitate the transfer of genetic material. Choice D is incorrect because F pili are not part of the recipient cell, but rather part of the donor cell for attachment to the recipient cell.
Question 6 of 9
A wound swab from a patient with a deep tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod bacterium that forms terminal spores. It is commonly associated with deep tissue infections and can cause gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically form spores at the terminal end. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and Bacillus cereus (D) is more commonly associated with food poisoning. In this case, the presence of terminal spores along with the clinical presentation of a deep tissue infection points towards Clostridium perfringens as the most likely causative agent.
Question 7 of 9
In the sixteenth century a father-and-son team, by the name of __________, produced a compound microscope consisting of a simple tube with lenses at each end.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Janssen. In the 16th century, Zacharias Janssen and his father Hans Janssen are credited with inventing the compound microscope. They constructed a simple tube with lenses at each end, allowing for magnification of small objects. This innovation laid the foundation for the development of modern microscopes. Van Leeuwenhoek is known for his contributions to microbiology but did not invent the compound microscope. Semmelweis is known for his work in handwashing and preventing infections. Hooke made significant contributions to microscopy but did not invent the compound microscope.
Question 8 of 9
A 23-year-old man developed a perforation in his hard palate, a dense formation with clear margins was detected in this area. After a surgery, microscopy of excised formation shows there a large focus of caseous necrosis surrounded with a granulation tissue with endovasculitis and a cellular infiltration consisting of lymphocytes and epithelioid cells with predominance of plasma cells. What is the most likely disease in this case?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tuberculosis. The case describes a man with a perforation in the hard palate and features of caseous necrosis with granulation tissue, endovasculitis, and a cellular infiltration mainly of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, and plasma cells. These findings are classic for tuberculosis infection, commonly seen in extrapulmonary sites like the oral cavity. Syphilis (choice A) typically presents with a painless ulcer and different histopathological features. Leprosy (choice C) presents with granulomas containing foamy macrophages. Scleroma (choice D) is caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis and presents with chronic granulomatous inflammation.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. Step 2: This bacterium produces toxins that damage the respiratory tract, leading to severe coughing fits. Step 3: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Haemophilus influenzae causes respiratory infections, and Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections. Step 4: Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium directly associated with whooping cough.