Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal–oral route?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal–oral route?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peptic ulcer. Peptic ulcers are commonly caused by Helicobacter pylori bacteria, which can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route. This means that the bacteria from infected feces can be ingested through contaminated food or water, leading to the development of peptic ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract. Incorrect choices: A: Ehrlichiosis - Ehrlichiosis is a tick-borne disease transmitted through the bite of an infected tick, not through the fecal-oral route. C: Lyme disease - Lyme disease is also transmitted through the bite of an infected tick, specifically the black-legged tick. D: Tularemia - Tularemia is a bacterial disease typically transmitted through insect bites, handling of infected animals, or ingestion of contaminated water, not through the fecal-oral route.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following antibodies indicates acute measles infection

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.

Question 3 of 9

A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it be?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and matches the description given in the question. Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative rod-like bacterium that forms greenish mucoid colonies with a specific smell due to its production of urease enzyme. This enzyme leads to the formation of struvite crystals, which can cause painful and frequent urination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) is not typically associated with UTIs. E.coli (C) is the most common cause of UTIs but does not match the specific description provided. Str.pyogenes (D) is a gram-positive bacterium and is not typically associated with UTIs.

Question 4 of 9

The white pulp and red pulp are part of which immune organ:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spleen. The white pulp of the spleen contains lymphocytes that help in immune responses. The red pulp filters blood and removes old or damaged red blood cells. The thymus (A) is responsible for T cell maturation, lymph nodes (B) filter lymph, and lymphoid tissue (D) includes various lymphoid organs but does not specifically refer to the spleen's distinct white and red pulp structure. Thus, the spleen is the only organ among the choices that has both white and red pulp components essential for immune functions.

Question 5 of 9

Production of RNA from DNA is called

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transcription. Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to the DNA and produces a complementary RNA strand. This process is essential for gene expression. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Transposition involves the movement of genetic elements within a genome, not the production of RNA from DNA. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA, not the production of RNA from DNA. D: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns and joining exons in pre-mRNA to produce mature mRNA, not the initial production of RNA from DNA.

Question 6 of 9

The main structure components of viruses are

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses consist of genetic material (nucleic acid) surrounded by a protein coat. The nucleic acid carries the viral genetic information, while the proteins form the capsid that protects the genetic material. This combination is essential for the virus to infect host cells and replicate. Lipids (choice B) are not typically part of the main structure of viruses. Lipids are more commonly found in the host cell membrane. Lipids and proteins (choice C) may be present in the viral envelope but are not the main structural components. Proteins and glycoproteins (choice D) are important for viral attachment and entry into host cells but do not constitute the main structural components of viruses.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is used to test for bacterial antibiotic susceptibility?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test. This test is used to determine the antibiotic susceptibility of bacteria by measuring the zone of inhibition around antibiotic-soaked paper disks. It helps identify which antibiotics are effective against the bacteria being tested. This test is crucial in guiding antibiotic treatment decisions. A: Gram stain is used to classify bacteria based on their cell wall composition and morphology, not for antibiotic susceptibility testing. B: Catalase test is used to differentiate between catalase-positive and catalase-negative bacteria, not for antibiotic susceptibility testing. D: Endospore stain is used to detect the presence of endospores in bacteria, not for antibiotic susceptibility testing.

Question 8 of 9

By precipitation of tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) is obtained. It is used in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to screen for tuberculosis by injecting PPD intradermally. The presence of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction indicates prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The Schick test (B) is used to test for immunity to diphtheria, while the Dick test (C) is used to test for immunity to scarlet fever. Therefore, the correct use of PPD is in the Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening.

Question 9 of 9

A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and blood. Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short pseudopodia, containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of abdominal pain, loose stools with mucus and blood, along with the presence of protozoa containing phagocytosed erythrocytes in stool analysis are indicative of Entamoeba histolytica infection. The size (30-40 microns) and pseudopodia characteristics match E. histolytica. Amebiasis commonly presents with dysentery, while Leishmaniasis (B) typically causes skin ulcers. Trichomoniasis (C) is a sexually transmitted infection, not associated with the described symptoms. Giardiasis (D) is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhea and steatorrhea, not bloody diarrhea as seen in this case.

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