ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.
Question 2 of 9
The enzyme used by bacteria to break down hydrogen peroxide is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Catalase. Catalase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This process helps protect the bacteria from oxidative damage caused by hydrogen peroxide. Amylase (A), Lipase (C), and Protease (D) are enzymes that are not involved in breaking down hydrogen peroxide. Amylase is involved in breaking down starch, Lipase breaks down lipids, and Protease breaks down proteins. Therefore, they are not the correct enzymes for the given question.
Question 3 of 9
After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of pathogenicity are the clinic presentations of this disease connected with?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Exotoxin. Botulism is caused by the exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. The symptoms described - diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness - are all consistent with botulism due to the neurotoxic effects of the exotoxin. The exotoxin interferes with neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis and the symptoms mentioned. The other choices (B, C, D, E) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the pathogenic mechanism of botulism and do not explain the specific clinical manifestations observed in this case.
Question 4 of 9
A 32 year old patient complains about heartburn and dull pain in the epigastrium that appear 2-3 hours after meal. Exacerbations happen in spring and in autumn. The patient has food intolerance of eggs and fish. Objectively: stomach palpation reveals painfulness in the gastroduodenal area. Electrophasoduodenoscopy revealed a 5 mm ulcer on the anterior wall of duodenum. Urease test is positive. What is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria are associated with causing foodborne infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica) are known to cause foodborne infections. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, E. coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, and Salmonella enterica is a common cause of food poisoning. Each bacterium has specific mechanisms that result in foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacterium mentioned is associated with causing foodborne infections, making them collectively the correct answer.
Question 6 of 9
How is viral multiplication detected in cell culture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral multiplication in cell culture can be detected by observing a specific cytopathic effect (A) caused by viral infection in cells and by using an immunofluorescence detection method (B) to visualize viral antigens within the cells. Choice C, the characteristic type of viral colonies, is incorrect as viral multiplication is not typically detected by observing viral colonies in cell culture. Option D is the correct choice as both A and B methods are commonly used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture.
Question 7 of 9
Which statement for immunomodulators is correct
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because immunomodulators can indeed be natural (e.g., cytokines) or artificial compounds (e.g., synthetic peptides). They work by modulating the immune response, enhancing or suppressing it as needed. Choice A is incorrect because immunomodulators can stimulate both humoral and cellular immune responses. Choice B is incorrect as isoniazid is primarily an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, not an immunomodulator. Choice D is incorrect because immunomodulators can have varying effects on the immune response, not just suppress it.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was taken to a hospital with acute food poisoning caused by homemade canned mushrooms. The product analysis revealed some microorganisms that develop only in the absence of oxygen. What microorganisms caused the poisoning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obligate anaerobes. These microorganisms thrive in the absence of oxygen, as seen in the canned mushrooms where oxygen is limited. They produce toxins causing food poisoning. Facultative anaerobes (B) can survive with or without oxygen. Microaerophiles (C) require low levels of oxygen. Obligate aerobes (D) need oxygen to survive and would not be responsible for the poisoning in this case.
Question 9 of 9
What is the function of bacterial pili?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The function of bacterial pili is to aid in adhesion. Pili are hair-like structures on the bacterial surface that help the bacteria attach to surfaces or other cells. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. Pili do not provide motility, as that is typically done by flagella. Bacteria form spores for survival under harsh conditions, and protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes, not pili. Thus, the correct answer is B, aiding in adhesion.