ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Colposcopy with biopsy is the most appropriate diagnostic test for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia. Colposcopy is a procedure in which a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix for any abnormal areas. If abnormal tissue is identified during colposcopy, a biopsy will be taken to confirm the presence of cervical dysplasia and determine the severity. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Pap smear, although a screening test for cervical dysplasia, may not provide a definitive diagnosis and may require further evaluation with colposcopy and biopsy. Endometrial biopsy and transvaginal ultrasound are not indicated for evaluating cervical dysplasia specifically.
Question 2 of 5
A 24-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, tender nodules are palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), and tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments are classic findings associated with endometriosis. In endometriosis, tissue similar to the lining of the uterus (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, commonly on the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and pelvic peritoneum. The presence of tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments is known as "nodularity" and is a characteristic feature of advanced endometriosis. It occurs due to the formation of endometrial implants that respond to hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle, resulting in inflammation, scarring, and pain in affected areas.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with symptoms of severe allergies, including difficulty breathing, hives, and swelling. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for mediating these allergic responses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mast cells are primarily responsible for mediating allergic responses such as severe allergies. When an allergen triggers the immune response, mast cells release histamine, leukotrienes, and other inflammatory mediators. These substances cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, and swelling. Basophils also release histamine, but mast cells are more abundant in tissues and play a significant role in allergic reactions. Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions but are more focused on combating parasitic infections. Neutrophils are not typically involved in allergic responses but play a key role in combating bacterial infections.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the generation of diversity in the antigen-binding sites of immunoglobulins?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Somatic hypermutation is the mechanism responsible for generating diversity in the antigen-binding sites of immunoglobulins. During somatic hypermutation, point mutations are introduced into the variable regions of immunoglobulin genes in B cells. These mutations occur randomly and lead to a wide range of amino acid changes in the antigen-binding sites of antibodies. As a result, a diverse repertoire of antibodies with varying specificities for different antigens is created. Gene rearrangement and isotype switching are other mechanisms that contribute to antibody diversity but do not specifically target the antigen-binding sites. Clonal expansion, on the other hand, refers to the proliferation of specific B cell clones after activation by antigens, which amplifies the immune response but does not directly impact the diversity of antigen-binding sites.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD