Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the irreversible demineralization of the enamel and dentin, leading to cavitation and destruction of tooth structure?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the irreversible demineralization of the enamel and dentin, leading to cavitation and destruction of tooth structure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dental caries, commonly known as tooth decay, is characterized by the irreversible demineralization of the enamel and dentin due to acids produced by bacterial activity. This process leads to cavitation and destruction of the tooth structure, ultimately resulting in the formation of a cavity. Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums, periodontitis is inflammation and infection of the supporting structures of the teeth (gums, bone, and ligaments), and a dental abscess is a collection of pus in the tissues surrounding the tooth, none of which are specifically related to the irreversible demineralization of enamel and dentin seen in dental caries.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.

Question 3 of 9

In the universal health law, which of the following are the government agencies that are considered as "key players" in its implementation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the universal health law, the government agencies that are considered as "key players" in its implementation are the Department of Health (DOH), Local Government Units (LGUs), and the Philippine Health Insurance Corporation (PhilHealth).

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is a common complication associated with hip fracture in elderly patients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head, also known as osteonecrosis, is a common complication associated with hip fractures in elderly patients. It occurs when there is a loss of blood supply to the femoral head following the fracture, leading to bone tissue death. This can result in pain, limitation of motion, and potentially the collapse of the femoral head, causing further complications. Timely diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in order to prevent further degeneration of the hip joint. Other complications such as compartment syndrome, dislocation of the hip prosthesis, and Volkmann's contracture are not typically associated with hip fractures in elderly patients.

Question 5 of 9

As a QA nurse, which of the following can Nurse Jen adopts as a concurrent evaluation of patient's outcomes in the unit? I Direct observation of patient's condition. II Patient's interview in the unit. III Face to face interview with nursing staff. IV Nursing audit from the patient's chart.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: As a QA nurse, Nurse Jen can adopt concurrent evaluation methods to assess patient outcomes in the unit. The most appropriate options for concurrent evaluation are Face to face interview with nursing staff (III) and Nursing audit from the patient's chart (IV).

Question 6 of 9

A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is preparing to perform a central venous catheter (CVC) dressing change for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to minimize the risk of infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize removing the old dressing and applying a new dressing using sterile technique to minimize the risk of infection during a central venous catheter (CVC) dressing change. This is because the most critical step in preventing infection is maintaining a clean and sterile environment around the CVC insertion site. By using sterile technique, the nurse can reduce the introduction of microorganisms that could potentially lead to infection. Wearing sterile gloves and cleaning the insertion site with an alcohol-based antiseptic solution are important steps as well, but the key priority lies in applying the new dressing using sterile technique to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection.

Question 8 of 9

During a patient assessment, the nurse observes signs of distress and discomfort. What action should the nurse take to address the patient's needs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing signs of distress and discomfort in a patient during assessment is to offer emotional support and actively listen to the patient's concerns. Ignoring the patient's distress may lead to worsening of the patient's condition and can be detrimental to the patient's well-being. Documenting the findings and informing the healthcare provider later is important but should not be the immediate response when a patient is in distress. Administering pain medication without further assessment is also not appropriate as the nurse needs to understand the underlying cause of the distress before providing appropriate interventions. Offering emotional support and actively listening to the patient's concerns can help the nurse understand the patient's needs, provide comfort, and potentially address the root cause of the distress.

Question 9 of 9

What IMMEDIATE danger should the nurse anticipate post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the immediate danger that the nurse should anticipate is bleeding. TURP is a surgical procedure that involves removing portions of the prostate gland through the urethra. Due to the nature of the surgery and the rich blood supply to the prostate, bleeding is a common complication post-TURP. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening condition. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as blood in the urine, drop in hematocrit levels, hypotension, tachycardia, and signs of hypovolemic shock, is crucial to prevent any serious complications. Proper assessment, monitoring, and timely intervention are essential in managing post-TURP bleeding and preventing adverse outcomes.

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