ATI RN
Psychotropic Medications 101 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following definitions are correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Inverse agonist- drug causes an opposite effect of the agonist Rationale: 1. Inverse agonists bind to the same receptor site as agonists but produce the opposite effect. 2. They decrease constitutive receptor activity. 3. Unlike agonists, they induce a biological response opposite to that of endogenous ligands. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct. Summary: A: Partial agonist- Incorrect. Partial agonists do not fully activate receptors. B: Antagonist- Incorrect. Antagonists do not activate a response, they block the receptor. D: Agonist- Incorrect. Agonists bind and activate receptors, leading to a biological response.
Question 2 of 5
A patient on Haldol 10mg daily is noted to have and extreme form of slowness. The PMHNP understands which dopamine pathway is associated with this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nigrostriatal pathway. Haldol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors. The nigrostriatal pathway is associated with motor control, and blocking dopamine in this pathway can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms like slowness. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Tuberoinfundibular pathway regulates prolactin secretion. B: Mesocortical pathway is associated with cognitive and emotional functions. D: Mesolimbic pathway is involved in reward and reinforcement.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following second generation antipsychotics is available sublingually or as transdermal patch?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Asenapine. Asenapine is the only second-generation antipsychotic available in sublingual form or as a transdermal patch. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption into the bloodstream, bypassing first-pass metabolism. This route is useful for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills. A transdermal patch provides a convenient and consistent delivery of the medication over an extended period. Clazapine (A) is not a common antipsychotic medication. Quetiapine (B) and Olanzapine (D) are not available in sublingual or transdermal forms.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been admitted to the psychiatric unit for acute psychosis. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates effective therapeutic communication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using silence and body language allows the patient to feel supported and encourages self-reflection. Silence gives the patient space to process thoughts and feelings without feeling rushed. It also demonstrates active listening and empathy. Choice A is incorrect because asking direct, probing questions may feel intrusive and overwhelming for a patient experiencing acute psychosis. Choice C is incorrect because telling the patient to stop being paranoid and to focus on reality is dismissive and can worsen the patient's symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because giving advice on how the patient should feel disregards the patient's emotions and autonomy in the therapeutic process.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom is most commonly associated with PTSD?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intrusive memories and flashbacks. This symptom is most commonly associated with PTSD as individuals with PTSD often experience recurrent, distressing memories of the traumatic event and may have flashbacks where they feel as if they are re-experiencing the event. This is a hallmark symptom of PTSD and is crucial in diagnosing the disorder. A: Excessive crying and sadness is a common symptom of depression but not specific to PTSD. C: Chronic feelings of euphoria are not typically associated with PTSD; in fact, individuals with PTSD often experience negative emotions. D: A need for constant validation is not a core symptom of PTSD; individuals with PTSD may seek support but not necessarily validation.