ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following data sets can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pulse rates. Pulse rates can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement because they have a true zero point and allow for meaningful ratios to be calculated. This means that we can perform operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on pulse rate data. In contrast, the other options (A: eye color, C: ethnicity, D: gender) are categorical data that do not have a true zero point and therefore cannot be analyzed on the ratio level. Eye color, ethnicity, and gender are all examples of nominal data which only allow for qualitative classification and do not have a numerical value that can be used in mathematical operations.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a suspected autoimmune disorder exhibits antibodies directed against self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of autoimmune diseases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loss of self-tolerance. This is because autoimmune diseases result from a breakdown in the immune system's ability to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, leading to the production of antibodies against self-antigens. When self-tolerance is lost, immune cells mistakenly target the body's own tissues, causing tissue damage and inflammation. Choice B (Failure of innate immunity) is incorrect because autoimmune diseases are primarily driven by adaptive immunity rather than innate immunity. Choice C (Defective T cell activation) is incorrect as T cells play a critical role in the immune response to self-antigens in autoimmune diseases. Choice D (Impaired phagocytosis) is incorrect as phagocytosis is a mechanism primarily involved in the removal of pathogens, not in the development of autoimmune diseases.
Question 3 of 9
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.
Question 4 of 9
Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks. B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water. D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.
Question 5 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema, and hypertension. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, metabolic acidosis, and hyperkalemia. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate initial management for the patient described is hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is essential for managing chronic kidney disease with severe symptoms and electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Hemodialysis helps to remove urea and creatinine from the blood, correct electrolyte abnormalities, and improve symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and peripheral edema. Initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy (Choice A) is contraindicated in severe kidney disease due to the risk of worsening renal function. Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate (Choice C) is used for acute hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity, not for initial management. Sodium bicarbonate administration (Choice D) may help correct metabolic acidosis, but it does not address the underlying cause or the need for urgent renal replacement therapy.
Question 7 of 9
In the presentation of results of qualitative research, the nurse researcher uses as a reference in the write-up the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: second. In qualitative research, the nurse researcher typically uses the second person as a reference in the write-up to maintain objectivity and convey findings accurately. Using "first" may introduce bias, "fourth" is irrelevant, and "third" is too far removed from the perspective of the researcher. By referencing the second person, the researcher can present the results in a clear and unbiased manner, enhancing the credibility of the study.
Question 8 of 9
To families and individual in the community, which is the MOST important goal of health education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because health education aims to empower individuals and families to develop skills and literacy in health. This enables them to make informed decisions and take control of their health. By improving their health literacy, they can better understand health information and navigate the healthcare system effectively. This goal aligns with promoting health behavior change and long-term wellness. A: Studying life history is not a primary goal of health education and does not directly contribute to improving health outcomes. B: Identifying weaknesses may be a part of health assessment, but the main goal is to empower individuals with skills and knowledge to improve their health. C: While lifestyle changes may be necessary for better health, the goal of health education is to provide individuals with the tools to make these changes, not to impose drastic transformations.
Question 9 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.