ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increased metabolic rate and sympathetic activity. This can lead to increased cardiac output and left ventricular mass, causing the heart to work harder. As a result, the left ventricle becomes hypertrophied, leading to a sustained, high-amplitude Point of Maximum Impulse (PMI) that is displaced laterally and downward. This can be felt during a physical examination as a strong and forceful PMI. In contrast, conditions like anemia, fever, and hypertension are not typically associated with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI.
Question 2 of 9
His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant. His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. What is the most likely cause of his pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of decreased bowel sounds, rebound tenderness, and involuntary guarding in the right lower quadrant is highly suggestive of acute appendicitis. These signs indicate inflammation and potential perforation of the appendix, leading to the classic symptoms of appendicitis. The pain in this case is likely due to the inflammatory process involving the appendix. The absence of abnormal findings in the rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations further supports the diagnosis of acute appendicitis as the most likely cause of the patient's pain.
Question 3 of 9
When should a woman conduct breast self-examination with respect to her menses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is recommended for women to conduct breast self-examination immediately prior to their menses. This is because the breasts are less likely to be tender, lumpy, or swollen during this time of the menstrual cycle, making it easier to detect any abnormalities such as lumps or changes in the breast tissue. Conducting breast self-examination around this time each month can help women become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to detect any changes that may indicate a potential issue.
Question 4 of 9
A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.
Question 5 of 9
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process based on the patient's symptoms and history would be an inflammatory process. The patient's joint pain, fever, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis suggest the possibility of an autoimmune inflammatory condition like rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The bilateral involvement of the wrists and fingers along with a family history of rheumatoid arthritis make this diagnosis more likely than an infectious, hematologic, or traumatic process in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the appropriate test to initially evaluate for peripheral vascular disease in this case. ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares the blood pressure in the arms to the blood pressure in the legs. A lower ABI value indicates a higher likelihood of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Given the patient's presentation of leg swelling and risk factors like smoking and hypertension, ABI can help determine the presence and severity of PAD, guiding further management and treatment decisions.
Question 7 of 9
You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10- year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.
Question 8 of 9
Jean has just given birth 6 months ago and is breast-feeding her child. She has not had a period since giving birth. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.
Question 9 of 9
A 29-year-old woman comes to your office. As you take the history, you notice that she is speaking very quickly, and jumping from topic to topic so rapidly that you have trouble following her. You are able to find some connections between ideas, but it is difficult. Which word describes this thought process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a person's thought process is characterized by speaking rapidly, jumping from topic to topic, and making loose or tangential connections between ideas, it is referred to as a "flight of ideas." This type of thought process is commonly seen in conditions such as mania, where there is a marked increase in goal-directed activity, energy, and racing thoughts. In contrast, derailment refers to a disorganized thought process where the individual is unable to maintain a logical progression in their speech. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually reaching the main point. Incoherence is used to describe speech that is incomprehensible and disjointed, lacking any logical connection between ideas.