ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following correctly pairs the most likely offending pathogen with the appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Candida albicans is a type of yeast commonly causing fungal infections. 2. Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida species. 3. Nystatin works by binding to fungal cell membranes and disrupting their integrity. 4. Griseofulvin (Choice A) is used to treat fungal skin infections, not Candida. 5. Terbinafine (Choice B) is mainly used for dermatophyte infections, not Candida. 6. Caspofungin (Choice D) is more suitable for invasive fungal infections like aspergillosis, not Candida. Summary: - Choice A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not target Candida albicans specifically. - Choice C is correct as nystatin is the appropriate treatment for Candida albicans infections.
Question 2 of 5
A 70-year-old female with hypertension is prescribed enalapril. Enalapril works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This leads to vasodilation, decreased aldosterone secretion, and reduced sodium and water retention, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not block beta-1 adrenergic receptors, relax vascular smooth muscle directly, or inhibit aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs is used to treat hypertension by reducing the effects of angiotensin II?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, blocking the effects of angiotensin II to lower blood pressure. 2. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, not specifically targeting angiotensin II receptors. 3. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, not directly affecting angiotensin II. 4. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that works on the kidneys, not angiotensin II receptors.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety by enhancing GABA activity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the activity of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce anxiety. This mechanism of action is effective in treating anxiety disorders. Citalopram and Fluoxetine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) used to treat depression, not anxiety. Propranolol is a beta-blocker primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart-related conditions, not anxiety. Therefore, Lorazepam is the correct choice for enhancing GABA activity to treat anxiety.
Question 5 of 5
A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is prescribed canagliflozin. Canagliflozin works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys. Canagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor that works by blocking the sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion. This mechanism helps lower blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because canagliflozin does not directly impact insulin secretion from the pancreas, the breakdown of incretin hormones, or insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues.