ATI RN
ATI VATI Pharmacology Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following contributes most to the debilitation of an individual during a course of chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diarrhea is one of the most debilitating side effects of chemotherapy because it can lead to severe dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and malnutrition. Persistent diarrhea can significantly impact the patient's quality of life, causing fatigue, weakness, and discomfort. While alopecia, constipation, and pain are also common side effects, diarrhea poses a greater immediate risk to the patient's physical health and ability to continue treatment. Managing diarrhea is therefore a priority in chemotherapy care.
Question 2 of 5
Of the secondary messengers:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: cAMP is more versatile than cGMP, which is specific (e.g., nitric oxide signaling), so that's false. Phosphoinositides require phospholipase C for IP3/DAG production, not independent, making that false. Theophylline inhibits cAMP degradation (phosphodiesterase), not upregulates it, so that's false. Adenylyl cyclase produces cAMP, not acts as its effector (protein kinase A does), but this is true per the key, reflecting its role in cAMP signaling. This pathway is critical in beta-adrenergic effects, like bronchodilation.
Question 3 of 5
The primary function of luteinizing hormone (LH) in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary stimulates testosterone production in testicular Leydig cells, its primary role in men, driving male physiology. Sperm production is regulated by FSH, not LH. Secondary sex characteristics and sex organ growth depend on testosterone, which LH indirectly supports by controlling its synthesis, not directly managing. Testosterone regulation is LH's specific function, triggering steroidogenesis, essential for fertility and masculinity, distinct from FSH's gamete role.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers narcotics to surgical patients. Which statement represents the nurse's best understanding as it relates to the potency of different narcotics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morphine's higher potency than codeine means less is needed for equal pain relief, a pharmacodynamic fact-e.g., 10 mg morphine matches 60 mg codeine. Allergy isn't potency-related. More adverse effects assume dose equivalence, not potency. Pain relief ties to dose, not potency alone. Potency drives dosing, key for surgical pain control.
Question 5 of 5
The most productive way of managing stress would be to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Combining drugs (e.g., benzos) with nonpharmacological methods (e.g., meditation) balances quick relief and long-term coping, per stress management best practices. Anxiolytics alone risk dependence. Meditation helps but may not suffice. Addressing the cause is ideal but often slow-combined approach leverages both, enhancing outcomes.